Reproductive Health Mock Test – Class 12 Biology

1. ZIFT and GIFT may both involve the fallopian tube, but they differ most fundamentally in the transferred material. ZIFT transfers:

2. A laboratory procedure produces an embryo by IVF. The embryo is allowed to develop beyond blastomeres, but the clinic mistakenly plans transfer into the fallopian tube because fertilisation occurred in vitro. Which correction is appropriate?

3. Consider the following statements about regular oral contraceptive pills.
I. They may contain small doses of progestogens alone.
II. They may contain progestogen-estrogen combinations.
III. They are taken daily for , followed by a gap.
IV. Their regular schedule is defined as a single dose taken only after unprotected intercourse.

4. Assertion: An IUD can be appropriate for spacing pregnancies without being classified as a sterilisation procedure.
Reason: Sterilisation is intended to permanently interrupt gamete transport, whereas an IUD is used as a reversible intrauterine contraceptive.

5. Assertion: India legalised MTP in under restrictions.
Reason: The amendment occurred before the original legalisation.

6. Match each programme activity with the RCH task it most directly represents. Column II entries may be reused.

7. A contraceptive user wants a reversible contraceptive for several years and also wishes to minimise dependence on remembering a daily dose. She has no stated need for STI protection. Which comparison best guides the choice?

8. A student is given a demographic series ending with the value “more than in May ” for India and labels that point “India's present population.” The best correction is:

9. The following contraceptive interventions act at different reproductive points:
P. A condom prevents semen or sperm from entering the female reproductive tract.
Q. A copper-releasing IUD reduces sperm motility and fertilising capacity after sperm enter the female tract.
R. A hormonal pill can inhibit ovulation.
S. A hormone-releasing IUD can make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
Which comparison correctly distinguishes a pre-entry barrier action from an intra-tract sperm effect?

10. Assertion: A larger population of reproductive-age individuals can contribute to rapid population growth even if average reproductive behaviour per individual remains unchanged.
Reason: Increasing the number of people capable of reproduction can increase the total number of births without requiring higher fertility behaviour per person.

11. Assertion: Absence of obvious genital symptoms can delay STI detection.
Reason: Some infected individuals, particularly females, may remain asymptomatic despite carrying an infection.

12. Assertion: Use of a donor gamete does not by itself determine which ART procedure is being performed.
Reason: ART classification depends on factors such as the material transferred, fertilisation status, developmental stage and destination.

13. Evaluate the following contraceptive actions of regular oral pills.
I. Inhibition of ovulation.
II. Inhibition of implantation.
III. Alteration of cervical mucus so that sperm entry is prevented or retarded.
IV. Surgical interruption of the vas deferens.

14. Assertion: Since fetal sex determination through amniocentesis is restricted, amniocentesis has no legitimate prenatal diagnostic role.
Reason: The same procedure may be used to investigate certain genetic disorders, while its use for sex determination associated with female foeticide represents misuse.

15. Evaluate the following statements about assisted embryo transfer.
I. Embryos formed after fertilisation outside the body may be transferred.
II. An embryo formed after fertilisation inside the female may also be used for transfer in an appropriate infertility situation.
III. The location of fertilisation and the later transfer procedure are always the same decision.
IV. Embryo transfer can therefore be conceptually separated from where fertilisation originally occurred.

16. A couple has already reached the family size they had planned, but relatives urge them to continue having children until a male child is born. Which reproductive-health principle is most directly compromised?

17. A student argues that because hepatitis-B, genital herpes and HIV infection are not placed in the completely-curable group, no sexually transmitted infection can be cured completely. The best correction is:

18. If a couple switches from consistent condom use to a contraceptive method that prevents pregnancy effectively but creates no physical barrier during intercourse, the most important protection that may be lost is:

19. Four postpartum women are compared at after delivery.

Who most closely satisfies the stated conditions for lactational amenorrhea?

20. Study the family situations below.

Which conclusion best integrates the table?

21. Arrange the following events into the most defensible STI progression.
P. Infection is acquired.
Q. Early manifestations are mild or absent.
R. Medical evaluation is delayed.
S. A reproductive complication develops.

22. A couple has infertility due to a correctable disease-related factor. They request IVF immediately because they believe assisted reproduction is always the most advanced and therefore the most appropriate first treatment. The strongest response is to:

23. Study the following ART-access profiles.

Which interpretation is strongest?

24. Which statement about adoption and infertility is biologically and socially accurate?

25. Nirodh is correctly classified as:

26. A reproductive-health system provides contraception, safe pregnancy care, STI services, infertility treatment and adoption counselling, but discriminatory sex selection remains common. Which conclusion best evaluates the system?

27. One woman seeks help after rape and wants to reduce the risk of a possible pregnancy. Which response is most consistent with emergency contraception?

28. Two partners cannot pursue further ART and decide to adopt an orphaned child legally. Which two outcomes occur simultaneously?

29. Review the following statements about contraceptive use.
I. Contraceptives may be used to prevent an unwanted pregnancy.
II. They may be selected to delay or space planned pregnancies.
III. Every reproductively healthy person is required to use a contraceptive routinely.
IV. Appropriate method selection may involve advice from qualified medical professionals.

30. Infertility evaluation identifies a disease-related reproductive factor in the male partner and a congenital reproductive abnormality in the female partner. The most appropriate conclusion is:

31. Assertion: Placement of an intrauterine device generally requires a trained medical professional.
Reason: Copper-releasing IUDs can reduce sperm motility and fertilising capacity.

32. An infertile couple is medically eligible for ART, but the required treatment is financially inaccessible and the couple does not wish to pursue further laboratory procedures. They still want to become parents. Which option represents a legitimate non-ART route without implying that their biological infertility has been corrected?

33. Study the infertility decision records.

Which case contains a mismatch between the reproductive limitation and proposed intervention?

34. The following features are compared for natural contraceptive methods.

The best synthesis of the table is:

35. A population-stabilisation programme reduces its growth rate from about to a somewhat lower value, but the population base has meanwhile become very large. Which prediction is most appropriate?

36. Periodic abstinence reduces the probability of conception by avoiding coitus during:

37. When a couple replaces withdrawal with condom use while keeping every other reproductive condition unchanged, which statement best describes what remains common and what is newly added?

38. Suppose a copper-releasing IUD remains correctly positioned in the uterus and still increases sperm phagocytosis, but a hypothetical defect prevents release of copper ions. Compared with normal function of the device, the most direct lost effects would be:

39. Consider the following statements about surgical sterilisation.
I. Vasectomy and tubectomy are highly effective contraceptive methods.
II. Their reversibility is very poor.
III. They block transport of gametes rather than requiring removal of the gonads.
IV. Continued sperm formation or ovulation necessarily proves that sterilisation has failed.

40. A centre increases ART access by adding trained specialists and precision equipment, but treatment cost remains extremely high. Which prediction is most reasonable?

41. During contraceptive use, a woman is postpartum, fully breastfeeding and has not resumed menstruation. One month later, menstruation returns even though breastfeeding continues. The most appropriate interpretation is:

42. A contraceptive is taken according to a planned daily regimen followed by a gap. This timing most strongly distinguishes it from:

43. Consider the following statements about the gametes used in IVF.
I. The ovum may be obtained from the wife.
II. The ovum may be obtained from a donor.
III. Sperm may be obtained from the husband.
IV. Sperm may be obtained from a donor.

44. Four IVF-derived embryos contain , , and blastomeres respectively. According to the stated transfer-stage rule, how many belong to the ZIFT-eligible group and how many to the IUT-eligible group?

45. Four infertility situations are presented.

Which sequence correctly assigns procedures to P, Q, R and S?

46. Which group contains only recognised possible complications of delayed or untreated STIs rather than early warning symptoms?

47. Assertion: Improved health facilities and better living conditions can contribute to population increase.
Reason: Such improvements can reduce death rates and allow a greater proportion of individuals to survive.

48. Use the arrangement described below. A laboratory instrument holds an ovum in position while a fine needle introduces one sperm directly into the ovum. The resulting embryo is later cultured for assisted reproduction. This procedure represents:

49. A donor ovum is fertilised with sperm outside the body. The resulting embryo reaches blastomeres and is transferred into the woman's fallopian tube. Which description is most accurate?

50. An IVF embryo is initially at the -blastomere stage and later develops to blastomeres before transfer. Under the stage-site distinction, this change most directly shifts the appropriate route from: