Locomotion and Movement Mock Test – Class 11 Biology

1. Equal muscle preparations are repeatedly stimulated. Preparation P maintains a low lactic-acid level and shows only a small decline in contraction. Preparation Q develops a marked rise in lactic acid together with a progressive fall in contraction. The strongest conclusion is:

2. Consider the following statements about muscle fatigue.
I. Repeated activation can reduce muscular performance.
II. Anaerobic breakdown of glycogen can lead to lactic-acid accumulation.
III. Lactic-acid accumulation indicates dominance of aerobic energy production.
IV. Accumulation of lactic acid during repeated activity can contribute to fatigue.

3. Measurements from the same sarcomere before and during contraction are shown below.

Which interpretation is supported by the measurements?

4. Four bones are compared.

Which sample correctly describes the clavicle?

5. A learner places a fascicle inside a single muscle fibre. Which replacement gives the correct structural relationship?

6. A treatment selectively damages the glenoid cavity while leaving the scapular spine, acromion, clavicle and humeral head structurally normal. Which function is most directly impaired?

7. An action potential spreads normally through a skeletal muscle fibre, but the sarcoplasmic reticulum fails to release . Which immediate consequence is expected?

8. Trace the increasing structural organisation of the actin-containing part of a thin filament.
P. Troponin complexes occur at intervals on tropomyosin
Q. Globular G-actin monomers
R. An F-actin polymer
S. Two F-actin strands wound helically
T. Tropomyosin filaments lie close to F-actin

9. Assertion: The knee and interphalangeal articulations are classified as hinge joints.
Reason: Their principal movement occurs in one plane.

10. Match each upper-limb component with the number of bones it contributes to one limb. A Column II entry is used once.

11. In an experiment, a motor nerve is stimulated equally on two sides of an animal. The control-side muscle contracts and moves the limb. On the treated side, the skeletal elements and joint remain intact, but the muscle has been prevented from contracting and the limb does not move. The result supports the conclusion that:

12. Consider the following statements about myasthenia gravis.
I. It is an autoimmune disorder.
II. It affects the neuromuscular junction.
III. It may cause fatigue, weakness and paralysis of skeletal muscles.
IV. It is primarily caused by age-related loss of bone mass.

13. A thumb joint normally has opposing saddle-shaped surfaces. After injury, those surfaces become flattened so that only simple sliding remains possible. Which interpretation is most appropriate?

14. The atlas-axis articulation is experimentally fixed, while the skull-atlas contact and all limb joints remain functional. Which movement is most directly impaired?

15. Damage to motor neuron P produces the observations shown below.

Which set most likely belongs to the motor unit of neuron P?

16. A skeletal-muscle sample is traced from the complete organ to one repeating contractile unit. Which sequence follows the correct structural hierarchy?

17. During repeated activity, Fibre P maintains mainly aerobic energy production and accumulates relatively little lactic acid. Fibre Q shows greater anaerobic glycogen breakdown and a larger lactic-acid increase. Which feature set most appropriately identifies Fibre Q?

18. A thin filament is observed in two states. In State P, troponin is not bound to , and the myosin-binding sites on actin are masked. In State Q, is bound to troponin, and the sites are accessible. The transition from P to Q represents:

19. Joint fluid from an inflamed articulation contains numerous uric-acid crystals. Bone mass is normal, and no autoimmune neuromuscular defect is detected. The disorder is:

20. Consider the following structures.
I. Skull
II. Vertebral column
III. Ribs and sternum
IV. Pectoral and pelvic girdles
Which belong to the axial skeleton?

21. Match each rib category with its pair numbers and ventral relation. A Column II entry is used once.

22. Use the sarcomere arrangement described below. Region P lies at the centre and contains only thick filaments in the resting state. Line Q passes through the centre of P and anchors the thick filaments. Region P and Line Q are respectively:

23. A detached myosin head hydrolyses before a rise in sarcoplasmic , while the myosin-binding sites on actin remain masked. Starting with this ATP-hydrolysis event, arrange the steps leading to an actin-myosin cross bridge.
P. The myosin head binds the exposed actin site.
Q. An actin-myosin cross bridge is established.
R. binds to troponin.
S. The binding sites on actin become accessible.
T. hydrolysis energises the myosin head.

24. Which classification correctly separates the principal divisions of the adult human skeleton?

25. Match each skeletal feature with its most appropriate relation. A Column II entry is used once.

26. Match each example with the outcome of its ciliary or flagellar activity. A Column II entry is used once.

27. A skull is described as having Region P formed by bones enclosing the brain and Region Q formed by bones making the front part of the skull. The regions are:

28. Let represent A-band width, represent I-band width, represent H-zone width and represent the distance between successive Z lines. Which relation describes the transition from a relatively relaxed to a contracted sarcomere?

29. Consider the following statements about the human skeletal framework.
I. Both bone and cartilage contribute to the skeleton.
II. Calcium salts contribute to the hardness of bone matrix.
III. Chondroitin salts are associated with the pliability of cartilage matrix.
IV. Cartilage is harder than bone owing to greater calcium deposition.

30. The sarcolemma of one skeletal muscle fibre is ruptured, but the surrounding fascia and neighbouring fibres remain intact. Which outcome is most directly expected?

31. A fascicle contains structurally intact muscle fibres, but most blood capillaries supplying that fascicle are experimentally blocked. Direct stimulation initially produces contraction, yet the fibres become unable to maintain normal activity. Which interpretation is most appropriate?

32. Equal bone samples are maintained under identical conditions. Calcium salts are selectively removed from Sample Q, while Sample P remains untreated. Sample Q becomes markedly less hard without being converted into cartilage. The strongest inference is:

33. Four proposed records list criteria for classifying muscle tissues.

The most appropriate classification record is:

34. Consider the following events in skeletal-muscle activation.
I. hydrolysis energises the myosin head.
II. -troponin interaction exposes binding sites on actin.
III. hydrolysis directly shortens the thick filament.
IV. An energised myosin head can bind an exposed actin site.

35. An injury damages a rigid skeletal enclosure around a delicate organ, but muscle attachment sites and limb joints remain functional. Which skeletal function is most directly compromised?

36. Adult P weighs , while adult Q weighs . Assuming muscle contributes of body weight in each person, which conclusion is guaranteed by these limits?

37. Four proposed rib-cage records are shown below.

Which record reconstructs the rib cage accurately?

38. Use the resting sarcomere arrangement described below. Region P contains only thin filaments. Region Q includes the entire thick-filament length and has overlap zones near its sides. Region R is a central part of Q containing thick filaments without thin-filament overlap. P, Q and R are respectively:

39. Examine the proposed structural records.

Which records are structurally valid?

40. Arrange the events initiating excitation of a skeletal muscle fibre.
P. Acetylcholine is released from the motor-neuron ending.
Q. An action potential is generated in the sarcolemma.
R. A neural signal reaches the motor-neuron ending.
S. Acetylcholine acts at the neuromuscular junction.

41. A myosin head completes its power stroke and releases the products of the earlier hydrolysis. Sarcoplasmic remains high, but no fresh is available. What is most likely to occur?

42. Consider the following statements.
I. Arthritis involves inflammation of joints.
II. It is primarily a disorder of the neuromuscular junction.
III. Joint pain and swelling may follow the inflammatory process.
IV. Reduced body-fluid is its defining cause.

43. After an actin-binding site is exposed, which sequence correctly orders the mechanical events?
P. The thin filament moves toward the centre of the A band.
Q. An energised myosin head attaches to actin.
R. The cross bridge rotates.
S. A cross bridge is formed.

44. Match each joint class with its defining structural feature. A Column II entry is used once.

45. Consider the following statements about limb-bone counts.
I. Each upper limb contains bones.
II. Each lower limb contains bones.
III. The two upper and two lower limbs together contain bones.
IV. The limb bones alone constitute the entire appendicular skeleton.

46. The cilia of a Paramoecium continue to create local currents that direct food toward the cell, but their coordination is insufficient to propel the organism. The most likely outcome is:

47. Two muscle samples show the following features.

The observations most strongly support which conclusion?

48. Two isolated muscle fibres show normal sarcolemmal excitation. Fibre P releases from its sarcoplasmic reticulum and contracts, while Fibre Q cannot release stored and fails to contract. The strongest inference is:

49. Four contact sites are described.
P. Two flat cranial bones joined at a suture
Q. A rib connected with cartilage
R. A skeletal muscle attached to a tendon
S. Collagenous fascia surrounding a fascicle
Which sites satisfy the skeletal definition of a joint?

50. Four descriptions are proposed for sarcomeric regions.

Which description specifically identifies the A band?