Cell Cycle and Cell Division Mock Test – Class 11 Biology

1. A newly formed daughter cell increases in size, performs normal metabolism and duplicates many organelles. Its nuclear DNA amount remains at . The cell is most consistent with:

2. Match each cell-cycle interval or event with its most characteristic activity. Each Column II entry is used once.

3. The visibility of selected structures in three mitotic cells is summarised below.

Which cell best represents late prophase?

4. Evaluate the following statements about the usual genetic outcome of mitosis.
I. Daughter cells receive the same chromosome number as the parental cell.
II. Equivalent replicated chromosome sets are distributed to the daughter nuclei.
III. Normal mitosis ordinarily produces daughter cells with an identical genetic complement.
IV. Mitosis reduces a diploid chromosome complement to a haploid one.

5. Match each feature with . Meiosis or . Mitosis. Each entry may be reused.
P. Two daughter cells with conserved parental chromosome number
Q. Synapsis of homologous chromosomes
R. Growth and ordinary tissue repair
S. Four haploid products after two divisions

6. Use the arrangement described below. At each pole of an animal cell, short microtubules radiate outward from a centrosomal region without attaching to chromosomes. Other fibres extend between the poles or connect pole-associated regions with chromosome kinetochores. Which identification is correct?

7. Use the arrangement described below. Numerous nuclei lie within one continuous mass of cytoplasm, and no internal cellular boundaries separate them. The condition arose through repeated nuclear divisions without corresponding cytoplasmic divisions. This organisation is:

8. Four proposed comparisons of animal- and plant-cell cytokinesis are shown below.

Which comparison correctly relates the mechanisms and their directions?

9. An animal cell duplicates its nuclear DNA normally during S phase, but centriole duplication is completely prevented. If the cell is forced into prophase, the most direct structural difficulty will be:

10. Use the meiotic arrangement described here. Two replicated homologous chromosomes lie closely paired along their lengths. A continuous structure extends between them and maintains their organised association before they begin separating. The structure and the substage in which its formation accompanies pairing are:

11. Two developing systems begin as one cell and gain the same total amount of cellular material. System P becomes one very large uninucleate cell because it never divides. System Q alternates growth with three complete rounds of mitosis and cytokinesis. Which conclusion best explains why Q, but not P, models early multicellular growth?

12. Four cell cultures show the following events during one attempted division.

Which culture is most likely to produce two separate daughter cells, each receiving an intact duplicated genome?

13. A diploid cell with completes S phase and undergoes normal mitosis. The chromosome-number relation from the parental cell to each daughter cell is:

14. The outcomes of four divisions are summarised below.

Which row best represents the usual outcome of normal mitosis?

15. In a meiocyte where nuclear structures reappear after meiosis I, arrange the following events in their broad order.
P. Homologous chromosomes reach opposite poles.
Q. Chromosomes begin dispersing from their condensed state.
R. Nuclear membranes and nucleoli reappear.
S. Cytokinesis produces two cells forming a dyad.

16. A diploid cell with has entered mitotic anaphase, but cytokinesis has not begun. All centromeres have divided. The complete undivided cell now contains:

17. Consider the following statements about the biological significance of meiosis.
I. Crossing over can generate new combinations of genetic material.
II. Meiotic chromosome behaviour contributes to differences among haploid products.
III. Heritable variation provides material relevant to evolutionary change.
IV. Meiosis normally makes all four products genetically identical.

18. Assertion: A cell with is not necessarily tetraploid.
Reason: Ploidy refers to chromosome sets, whereas the increase from to can result from DNA replication without adding homologous sets.

19. Four diploid cells, each with DNA, show the following features.

Which identification is correct?

20. Daughter chromosomes reach opposite poles normally, but a treatment prevents their telophase decondensation. Nuclear-envelope components remain available. The most direct consequence is:

21. A division produces four cells from one diploid parent. Each product is haploid, and chromosome segments exchanged between homologues are present in some products. The process belongs to the category:

22. Two daughter nuclei have formed inside one animal cell. A furrow then appears at the cell surface, deepens towards the centre and finally separates the cytoplasm into two compartments. The final process described is:

23. Replicated cells are divided into control and treatment groups. In both groups, DNA content reaches . Control cells form distinct mitotic chromosomes, whereas treated cells retain diffuse chromatin and fail to proceed normally through mitosis. The treatment most directly interfered with:

24. Four proliferating cells show the following features.

Which cell most closely represents ?

25. Assertion: A cell in may contain DNA even though nuclear DNA synthesis is not occurring.
Reason: Nuclear DNA amount normally doubles during .

26. A mitotic cell completes DNA replication, but one daughter region receives both copies of a particular chromosome while the other receives none. The most accurate prediction is:

27. A diploid cell contains chromosomes in . After completing S phase, but before centromere division, the same cell contains:

28. A species has . Compare one metaphase-I cell with the complete pair of metaphase-II cells derived from it after normal meiosis I. Which relation is correct?

29. Consider the following implications of genetic control over the cell cycle.
I. Similar proliferating cells can show a reproducible order of major events.
II. Genetic control does not require equal cycle duration in every cell type.
III. Disruption of event order may interfere with intact-genome transmission.
IV. Random timing of replication and segregation is sufficient for normal daughter cells.

30. A graph plots DNA content per cell on the y-axis against meiotic progression on the x-axis. DNA rises from to before meiosis, falls to after meiosis I, remains constant during interkinesis and falls to after meiosis II. The two decreases differ in that:

31. A graph follows one cellular compartment through four successive rounds. Nuclear number rises , while the number of cytoplasmic compartments remains throughout. The graph most directly represents:

32. The chromosome states of three cells are shown below. Counts refer to each complete cell or daughter cell as indicated.

Which record correctly represents one normal mitotic cycle?

33. Three adult-cell populations are described.
Population P remains metabolically active but does not ordinarily divide, as in adult heart tissue.
Population Q is non-proliferative under normal conditions but re-enters the cycle after cell loss.
Population R continually passes through the cycle to replace rapidly lost cells.
The most appropriate classification is:

34. Assertion: Chromosome replication and distribution occur through an ordered series of events.
Reason: Genetic control makes every cell type complete its cycle in exactly the same duration.

35. An oocyte of a vertebrate remains in prophase I for several years. Its homologous chromosomes have begun separating after synaptonemal-complex dissolution but remain connected at chiasmata. This prolonged state is:

36. Assertion: The cell plate formed during plant-cell cytokinesis contributes to the region separating the two daughter cells.
Reason: The cell plate acts as a precursor of the new cell wall and represents the future middle lamella between adjacent daughter cells.

37. The contrasting directions of cytokinesis in typical animal and plant cells are:

38. Two equally grown cells complete normal karyokinesis. Cell P partitions its cytoplasm nearly equally, whereas Cell Q forms one large and one very small cytoplasmic compartment despite producing equivalent daughter nuclei. Which inference about nucleo-cytoplasmic balance is most justified?

39. Use the arrangement described below. A haploid cell contains replicated chromosomes whose centromeres have just divided. The two former sister chromatids of each chromosome are moving towards opposite poles. This arrangement represents:

40. Evaluate the following statements about mitotic anaphase.
I. Centromeres divide at its initiation.
II. Sister chromatids become independent daughter chromosomes.
III. Daughter chromosomes move with their arms leading.
IV. Equivalent chromosome groups move towards opposite poles.

41. A species has . Compare two cells:

Why does the equal chromosome count not imply equal ploidy?

42. A plant cell completes normal chromosome segregation and forms two daughter nuclei. Cytokinesis also occurs, but nearly all plastids remain in only one daughter-cell region before separation is completed. The most direct consequence is that:

43. Match each chromosome-associated term with its description. Each Column II entry is used once.

44. Assertion: Centromere and kinetochore are not exact synonyms.
Reason: The centromere is the chromosome region joining sister chromatids, while kinetochores on its surface provide spindle-fibre attachment sites.

45. Which combination correctly evaluates these statements?
I. A rise in cell mass alone is insufficient to identify S phase.
II. An increase in nuclear DNA amount is evidence that the cell is in S phase.
III. Cellular growth may continue outside the period of DNA synthesis.
IV. Nuclear DNA doubles gradually throughout all of interphase.

46. A dividing diploid cell has completed one DNA-replication phase. Homologous chromosomes pair and exchange segments, two nuclear divisions follow, and four cellular products form. A second diploid cell also completes one replication but shows no homologue pairing and produces two cells after one division. The cells are undergoing:

47. Use the arrangement described here. A haploid cell contains several replicated chromosomes aligned individually at the equator. For each chromosome, the kinetochore of one sister chromatid is connected towards one pole and the kinetochore of the other sister is connected towards the opposite pole. This is:

48. Which statements accurately describe the two principal phases of a proliferating cell cycle?
I. Interphase occurs between successive M phases.
II. Major preparation for division occurs during interphase.
III. Nuclear division is a component of M phase.
IV. Genome duplication normally occurs during M phase.

49. The cell cycle is most accurately described as:

50. Arrange the following changes in their broad progression from the end of interphase to established metaphase.
P. Chromatin starts condensing into visible chromosomes.
Q. Duplicated centrosomes move towards opposite poles.
R. Nuclear-envelope distinction is lost.
S. Chromosomes become available for spindle-dependent equatorial alignment.