Cell: The Unit Of Life Mock Test

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Quiz: Cell: The Unit of Life – Progressive Test
Total questions: 450
Questions in this round: 50
Time allotted: 70 minutes
Pass score: 60%
Total rounds: 9
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Quiz: Cell: The Unit of Life – Certificate Challenge
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1 / 50

1. A viable cell has DNA, cytoplasm, ribosomes and a plasma membrane but lacks both a nuclear envelope and a cell wall. Its organisation is most consistent with:

a) a typical bacterium with the complete usual envelope

b) Mycoplasma, representing a wall-less prokaryotic exception

c) an acellular virus enclosed by a membrane derived from a bacterium

d) a typical eukaryotic cell lacking only mitochondria

2 / 50

2. The enzyme-substrate records below are obtained using lysosomal enzymes under their favourable acidic conditions.

Record	Enzyme	Substrate	Predicted breakdown
P	Lipase	Protein	High
Q	Protease	Protein	High
R	Carbohydrase	Carbohydrate	High
S	Lipase	Lipid	High

The record least consistent with enzyme specificity is:

a) R

b) Q

c) P

d) S

3 / 50

3. Assertion: Schleiden's conclusion connected the diversity of plant cells with the cellular organisation of plant tissues.
Reason: Repeated observations of many plants supported a generalisation that plant bodies are composed of cells.

a) Assertion is true, but Reason is false; the Reason cannot explain the Assertion

b) Assertion is false, but Reason is true; the Reason cannot explain the Assertion

c) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason does not explain the Assertion

d) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason correctly explains the Assertion

4 / 50

4. A treatment reduces mesosomal folding in bacterial cells without greatly changing cell volume or the outer plasma-membrane boundary. Membrane-associated enzyme content and respiratory activity both decline. The strongest inference is that mesosomal folding:

a) increases plasma-membrane surface available for enzymes and linked reactions

b) provides the rigid mechanical support otherwise supplied by the bacterial wall

c) provides a pigment-bearing membrane surface in every bacterial species

d) stores the principal bacterial chromosome in a compartment separate from the nucleoid

5 / 50

5. Four chromosomes are described below.

Chromosome	Centromere position	Arm relation
P	Terminal	No conventional short arm beyond the centromere
Q	Near one end	One extremely short and one very long arm
R	Middle	One extremely short and one very long arm
S	Slightly off-centre	No arm beyond the centromere

Which identification is correct?

a) P is telocentric, and Q is acrocentric

b) R is acrocentric, and S is telocentric

c) P is acrocentric, and Q is telocentric

d) R is telocentric, and S is acrocentric

6 / 50

6. Which comparison between a basal body and a typical axoneme is correct?

a) Both are bacterial structures composed of filament, hook and basal body

b) The basal body is membrane-bound, whereas the axoneme lacks a membrane covering

c) The basal body has nine triplets; the axoneme has nine doublets and a central pair

d) Both contain nine peripheral doublets plus two central microtubules within the same structural plan

7 / 50

7. In a bacterial flagellum, the longest part projecting from the cell surface is the ______, which is connected through a hook to the basal body.

a) pilus

b) fimbria

c) filament

d) basal body

8 / 50

8. Four treatments are applied separately to adjacent plant cells.

Treatment	Observation
P	Middle lamella is dissolved; neighbouring cells separate
Q	Plasmodesmata are blocked; cytoplasmic transfer declines
R	Secondary-wall deposition is prevented; the young primary wall disappears immediately
S	Plasma membrane is removed; selective exchange remains normal

The pair of records that is biologically consistent is:

a) Q and S

b) R and S

c) P and Q

d) P and R

9 / 50

9. Examine the following plant-animal comparison records.

Record	Feature	Proposed distribution
P	Plasma membrane	Shared by plant and animal cells
Q	Large central vacuole	Characteristic of a typical mature plant cell
R	Centrioles	Commonly associated with a typical animal cell
S	Mitochondria	Exclusive to animal cells

The record requiring correction is:

a) P

b) S

c) Q

d) R

10 / 50

10. Match each entry in Column I with the most closely associated contribution in Column II. A Column II entry is used once.

Column I	Column II
P. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek	1. Description of the nucleus
Q. Robert Brown	2. First observation and description of a living cell
R. Electron microscopy	3. Revelation of finer cellular details

a) P-2, Q-3, R-1

b) P-2, Q-1, R-3

c) P-3, Q-2, R-1

d) P-1, Q-3, R-2

11 / 50

11. Measurements of one chloroplast are in length and in width. Which interpretation is correct?

a) Its length-to-width ratio is , and both dimensions lie within the usual ranges

b) Its length-to-width ratio is , and both dimensions lie outside the usual ranges

c) Its length-to-width ratio is , but both dimensions lie outside the usual ranges

d) Its length-to-width ratio is , and only the width lies within the usual range

12 / 50

12. From outside inward, the envelope of a bacterium consists of P, Q and R. P may be loose or capsular, Q is rigid, and R directly surrounds the cytoplasm. Movement of a test solute into the cytoplasm is regulated mainly at:

a) Q, the rigid cell-wall layer

b) P, the outer glycocalyx layer

c) R, the bacterial plasma membrane

d) the nucleoid located within the plasma membrane

13 / 50

13. The semifluid cellular matrix that occurs in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells and supports numerous life-maintaining reactions is the:

a) chromosome

b) cell wall

c) nucleoplasm

d) cytoplasm

14 / 50

14. Consider the following statements about prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
I. Both possess genetic material.
II. Both contain cytoplasm and ribosomes.
III. A membrane-bound nucleus is characteristic of eukaryotic organisation.
IV. Prokaryotes lack DNA since they lack a nuclear envelope.

a) I, II and III only

b) II, III and IV only

c) I, II and IV only

d) I, III and IV only

15 / 50

15. Bacterial cell P has a diffuse, easily spread outer coating. Cell Q has a thick, tough outer covering outside its wall. The coatings of P and Q are respectively:

a) plasma membrane and cell wall

b) cell wall and plasma membrane

c) slime layer and capsule

d) capsule and slime layer

16 / 50

16. Consider the following statements about the fluid mosaic model.
I. Singer and Nicolson proposed the model in .
II. The lipid bilayer is quasi-fluid rather than a permanently rigid sheet.
III. All membrane proteins remain fixed at one position throughout the life of the cell.
IV. Different proteins distributed within or on the bilayer produce a mosaic appearance.

a) I, II and III only

b) I, II and IV only

c) I, III and IV only

d) II, III and IV only

17 / 50

17. Two bacterial membrane extensions are compared.

Feature	Extension P	Extension Q
Form	Vesicles, tubules and lamellae	Pigment-bearing internal membranes
Effect of damage	Reduced respiration and wall-formation support	Reduced photosynthetic activity

Which conclusion best explains the different effects?

a) P is a mesosome and Q a chromatophore, reflecting different membrane specialisations

b) P is a chromatophore and Q a mesosome, since pigments do not distinguish them

c) Both are chromatophores because damage to any bacterial membrane lowers photosynthesis

d) Both are mesosomes because internal membranes necessarily support the same processes

18 / 50

18. Evaluate the following statements about ribosome distribution.
I. Ribosomes occur in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
II. Ribosomes may lie freely in the cytoplasm.
III. Ribosomes may occur on rough endoplasmic reticulum in eukaryotic cells.
IV. Ribosomes are restricted to the membrane-bound nucleus.

a) I, II and IV only

b) I, III and IV only

c) I, II and III only

d) II, III and IV only

19 / 50

19. A photosynthetic bacterium contains numerous gas-filled inclusions but no membrane-bound organelles. A freshwater protist contains a membrane-bound compartment that repeatedly fills and expels water. Which comparison is correct?

a) both structures are non-membranous reserve granules used for nutrient storage

b) both structures are membrane-bound vacuoles that expel excess water from their cells

c) bacterial gas vacuoles lack membranes; the protist contractile vacuole is membrane-bound

d) bacterial gas vacuoles digest food, whereas the protist contractile vacuole lacks a surrounding membrane

20 / 50

20. A treatment selectively inhibits ribosomal RNA synthesis in the nucleolus. Existing cytoplasmic ribosomes remain functional initially. Which outcome is most likely over time?

a) Increased assembly of new ribosomal subunits despite reduced nucleolar RNA production

b) Reduced formation of new ribosomes followed by declining protein-synthetic capacity

c) Immediate conversion of nuclear chromatin into mitochondrial DNA followed by ATP loss

d) Direct formation of lysosomes from nucleolar material followed by enhanced intracellular digestion

21 / 50

21. Four structures are compared below.

Structure	Cellular occurrence	Classification
P	Blue-green photosynthetic bacterium	Gas vacuole
Q	Purple photosynthetic bacterium	Gas vacuole
R	Green photosynthetic bacterium	Gas vacuole
S	Animal cell	Prokaryotic gas vacuole

The record inconsistent with the stated cellular occurrence is:

a) Q

b) S

c) R

d) P

22 / 50

22. A treatment prevents the and subunits in a bacterial cell from associating, although both subunits remain structurally intact. The most direct consequence is:

a) Formation of complete ribosomes and cellular protein synthesis decline

b) The two subunits combine instead to form a complete ribosome

c) Only reserve inclusions are affected, while translation remains unchanged

d) Each isolated subunit continues translation as a complete functional ribosome

23 / 50

23. A mutant cell shows a sharp decline in aerobic ATP production. Its mitochondrial inner membrane has very few cristae, but chlorophyll-containing thylakoids, Golgi secretion and cytoplasmic translation remain normal. The most strongly supported defect is:

a) Failure of protein synthesis on rough-ER-associated ribosomes

b) Rupture of lysosomal membranes with release of hydrolytic enzymes

c) Loss of chloroplast stroma enzymes required for carbon fixation

d) Reduced inner-membrane area caused by sparse mitochondrial cristae

24 / 50

24. A student labels the narrowed primary region of a duplicated chromosome as a kinetochore and labels the two discs beside it as centromeres. The correction should be:

a) The narrowed region is a chromatid, while the discs are chromosome arms

b) Both labels are correct because centromere and kinetochore are exact synonyms

c) The narrowed region is the centromere, while the discs beside it are kinetochores

d) The narrowed region is a satellite, while the discs are secondary constrictions

25 / 50

25. A biological structure qualifies as the fundamental structural and functional unit of life when it:

a) is resolved clearly only with a high-resolution microscope

b) contains cellular chemicals but lacks complete living organisation

c) forms part of an organism without sustaining integrated living activities

d) maintains essential living activities as a complete cellular organisation

26 / 50

26. A structural alteration prevents the primary constriction of a duplicated chromosome from maintaining its normal joining role, but the chromosome arms remain intact. The most direct consequence is:

a) the two chromatids are no longer held together normally at the centromere

b) the arm-length classification changes even though centromere position is unaltered

c) the secondary constriction assumes the chromatid-joining role

d) the kinetochores alone maintain a complete normal chromatid junction

27 / 50

27. The strongest pair of features for identifying an intact unknown cell as eukaryotic is:

a) cytoplasm containing ribosomes and an external plasma membrane

b) hereditary information associated with active protein-synthesising ribosomes

c) a membrane-bound nucleus together with other membrane-bound organelles

d) genetic material enclosed within a selectively permeable plasma membrane

28 / 50

28. Examine the following cellular records.

Record	Genetic organisation	Ribosomes	Internal organisation
P	Circular DNA in a nucleoid		No typical membrane-bound organelles
Q	Chromosomes inside a nucleus	in cytoplasm	Extensive compartmentalisation
R	Circular DNA inside a double-membrane organelle	within the organelle	Occurs inside a eukaryotic cell
S	Chromosomes inside a nucleus		Filament-hook-basal-body flagellum

The record requiring correction is:

a) P

b) Q

c) S

d) R

29 / 50

29. Equal cells are supplied with two substances. Substance P is a neutral solute moving from higher to lower concentration through the lipid bilayer. Substance Q is an ion being accumulated where its concentration is already higher. After ATP synthesis is inhibited, P continues to enter while Q accumulation stops. The strongest inference is:

a) both movements are passive, but Q is blocked by the lipid bilayer

b) P is osmotic water movement, while Q is simple diffusion

c) both movements are active, but P requires less ATP than Q

d) P is passive diffusion, whereas Q requires active transport

30 / 50

30. Match each structure in Column I with its relation in Column II. A Column II entry is used once.

Column I	Column II
P. Nucleus	1. Genetic material present within chromosomes
Q. Chromosome	2. Membrane-bound compartment containing chromosomes
R. DNA	3. Organised structure containing genetic material
S. Plasma membrane	4. Living boundary surrounding the cytoplasm

a) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

b) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

c) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

d) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

31 / 50

31. Two typical cells are compared below.

Feature	Cell P	Cell Q
Cell wall	Present	Absent
Plastids	Present	Absent
Large central vacuole	Present	Absent
Centrioles	Absent	Present
Mitochondria	Present	Present

Cells P and Q are most reasonably identified as:

a) fungal and prokaryotic cells, respectively

b) animal and plant cells, respectively

c) plant and animal cells, respectively

d) prokaryotic and animal cells, respectively

32 / 50

32. Four transverse sections are described below.

Section	Peripheral arrangement	Central arrangement
P	Nine doublets	Two singlets
Q	Nine triplets	No central pair
R	Nine singlets	Two doublets
S	Eight doublets	Two singlets

The typical eukaryotic ciliary axoneme is represented by:

a) R

b) Q

c) S

d) P

33 / 50

33. Organism P consists of one cell that obtains nutrients, responds to changes and reproduces. Organism Q has many specialised cell groups that perform different essential tasks. The most accurate comparison is:

a) P lacks cellular organisation, while each cell of Q is an independent organism

b) P performs all essential functions in one cell, while Q shows division of labour

c) P and Q differ mainly in cell size rather than in functional organisation

d) P depends on tissues for survival, while Q performs every function in one cell

34 / 50

34. Organelle P has a double membrane, an inner membrane folded into cristae and a matrix containing circular DNA and ribosomes. Organelle Q also has a double membrane and contains circular DNA and ribosomes, but its internal membranes form thylakoids and grana containing chlorophyll. P and Q are respectively:

a) Lysosome and chloroplast

b) Chloroplast and mitochondrion

c) Mitochondrion and Golgi apparatus

d) Mitochondrion and chloroplast

35 / 50

35. Equal cytoplasmic volumes from three cell types are examined.

Cell type	Relative physiological activity	Average mitochondrial count
P	High
Q	Moderate
R	Low

The strongest conclusion supported by the records is:

a) Cells containing fewer mitochondria necessarily lack aerobic respiration

b) Mitochondrial number determines whether a cell is prokaryotic or eukaryotic

c) Every active cell must contain exactly ten times more mitochondria than an inactive cell

d) Mitochondrial abundance may increase with cellular physiological activity

36 / 50

36. An unknown intracellular structure extends throughout the cytoplasm, is composed of several protein filament systems and has no single surrounding membrane. It is best classified as:

a) the endomembrane system

b) the nucleoplasm

c) a giant lysosome

d) the cytoskeleton

37 / 50

37. Examine the following records of bacterial flagellar structure.

Record	Structure	Description
P	Filament	Longest part projecting from the surface
Q	Hook	Connects the filament with the basal body
R	Basal body	Anchors the flagellum in the envelope
S	Bacterial flagellum	Contains a eukaryotic axoneme

The record requiring correction is:

a) P

b) R

c) S

d) Q

38 / 50

38. Match each mitochondrial feature in Column I with its description in Column II. A Column II entry is used once.

Column I	Column II
P. Circular DNA	1. Increases inner-membrane surface area
Q. ribosome	2. Mode by which mitochondria reproduce within cells
R. Fission	3. Supports synthesis of some mitochondrial proteins
S. Crista	4. Mitochondrial genetic molecule located in the matrix

a) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

b) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

c) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3

d) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

39 / 50

39. Which statement correctly repairs the common confusion between acrocentric and telocentric chromosomes?

a) A telocentric chromosome has a small arm beyond its centromere, whereas an acrocentric chromosome has none

b) An acrocentric chromosome has equal arms, whereas a telocentric chromosome has slightly unequal arms

c) An acrocentric chromosome has a near-terminal centromere; a telocentric one has a terminal centromere

d) Both chromosomes have centromeres exactly in the middle but differ in satellite number

40 / 50

40. A complete centriole has nine peripheral triplets. If each triplet contains three microtubules, the number of peripheral microtubules is:

41 / 50

41. A large central compartment occupies most of a plant cell. Structure P forms its boundary, while region Q contains water, ions, pigments and other dissolved materials. P and Q are respectively:

a) nuclear envelope and chromatin

b) plasma membrane and cytoplasm

c) the tonoplast and vacuolar sap

d) cell wall and nucleoplasm

42 / 50

42. A treatment selectively disrupts one of the three protein filament systems of a eukaryotic cell, while the other two filament systems and all membrane-bound organelles remain intact. The most justified conclusion is:

a) The cytoskeleton remains fully functional because two filament systems can perform every role

b) Only membrane-bound organelles are affected, while cytoskeletal functions remain unchanged

c) The cytoskeleton remains incomplete, so some support, shape or motility functions may decline

d) All cytoskeletal functions cease immediately, even though two filament systems remain intact

43 / 50

43. At a nuclear pore, the outer and inner nuclear membranes:

a) remain separated at the pore and preserve an uninterrupted perinuclear space

b) join the plasma membrane to make the nucleus continuous with the cell surface

c) terminate independently on opposite sides of a protein-filled gap

d) fuse with each other to form a pore opening through the nuclear envelope

44 / 50

44. A graph plots relative protein-synthesis activity on the horizontal axis and average nucleolar size on the vertical axis. Across comparable cells, nucleolar size rises as protein-synthesis activity increases. The most justified interpretation is:

a) Nucleoli directly manufacture every cellular polypeptide

b) Greater protein-synthesis demand is associated with a larger nucleolus

c) Nucleolar size proves that all proteins are produced inside the nucleus

d) Large nucleoli indicate loss of ribosomal RNA synthesis

45 / 50

45. Examine the following changed-condition records.

Record	Damaged structure	Observed primary effect
P	Mitochondrial cristae	Reduced aerobic ATP-producing capacity
Q	Chloroplast thylakoids	Reduced light-energy capture
R	Tonoplast	Mixing of vacuolar contents with cytoplasm
S	Centriole	Immediate loss of nucleolar rRNA synthesis

Which combination contains all biologically consistent records?

a) P, Q and S only

b) Q and S only

c) P and S only

d) P, Q and R only

46 / 50

46. Arrange the following contributions in chronological order.
P. Schleiden concluded that plants are composed of cells forming tissues in .
Q. Schwann proposed a cellular basis for plants and animals in .
R. Virchow stated that cells arise from pre-existing cells in .

a) R → P → Q

b) P → Q → R

c) P → R → Q

d) Q → P → R

47 / 50

47. An external bacterial appendage has three labelled regions. P is a long projecting strand, Q is a short curved connector at its base, and R is embedded in the cell envelope. The correct identification is:

a) P is pilus, Q is fimbria and R is mesosome

b) P is filament, Q is basal body and R is hook

c) P is filament, Q is hook and R is basal body

d) P is hook, Q is filament and R is basal body

48 / 50

48. Four bacterial records are compared.

Record	Surface structures	Directional movement
P	No flagellum detected	Absent
Q	One flagellum at one cell region	Present
R	Several flagella at different surface sites	Present
S	Numerous fimbriae but no flagellum	Absent

The strongest synthesis is:

a) only a single flagellum can support bacterial movement under all conditions

b) flagella are associated with motility and may vary in number and arrangement

c) all external fibres produce the same locomotory effect regardless of their arrangement

d) fimbriae are non-functional flagella of non-motile bacteria rather than attachment structures

49 / 50

49. Examine the following plastid-storage records.

Record	Plastid	Stored material
P	Chromoplast	Starch
Q	Amyloplast	Starch
R	Elaioplast	Oils and fats
S	Aleuroplast	Proteins

The record requiring correction is:

a) R

b) P

c) S

d) Q

50 / 50

50. Assertion: The centrosome of a typical animal cell contains a pair of centrioles arranged approximately at right angles to each other.
Reason: Each centriole is made of nine peripheral tubulin triplets organised around a central region.

a) Assertion is true, but Reason is false; the Reason cannot explain the Assertion

b) Assertion is false, but Reason is true; the Reason cannot explain the Assertion

c) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason correctly explains the Assertion

d) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason does not explain the Assertion

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