Plant Kingdom Mock Test – Class 11 Biology

1. Vegetative reproduction in Rhodophyceae commonly occurs by:

2. Agar used in microbial culture media and in products such as ice-creams and jellies is obtained chiefly from:

3. Match each evidence source with the observation it most directly provides. A Column II entry is used once.

4. A comparison seeks the pair that shares a dominant vascular sporophyte but differs in whether seeds are formed. Which pair satisfies this relation?

5. Scheme P evaluates external form together with anatomy, embryology and phytochemistry. Scheme Q arranges organisms according to their inferred evolutionary relationships. Scheme P and Scheme Q are, respectively:

6. A labelled figure shows Plant P as a dicotyledon and Plant Q as a monocotyledon. Both plants bear flowers and fruits. Which conclusion is directly supported?

7. Samples of chlorophyll-bearing thalli are collected from a freshwater pond, coastal seawater and a continuously moist stone. The observations support the conclusion that algal habitats:

8. The group containing only marine algae cited as food sources is:

9. Assertion: Production of microspores and megaspores alone means that a pteridophyte has formed true seeds.
Reason: Heterospory creates separate male and female gametophytic pathways.

10. A mutation shifts both flagella of a brown-algal zoospore from lateral attachment to the apical end while leaving them unequal. The feature that no longer matches the usual Phaeophyceae profile is:

11. Assertion: Bryophytes and pteridophytes require external water for fertilisation, whereas gymnosperms do not require an external film of water for male-gamete transfer.
Reason: In gymnosperms, pollen reaches the ovule opening and a pollen tube delivers the male gametes.

12. Arrange the events from pollination to gymnosperm fertilisation.
P. Male gametes are released near an archegonium.
Q. A pollen grain reaches the ovule opening.
R. Fusion with an egg produces a zygote.
S. The pollen tube grows toward the archegonia.

13. Two algae have similar brownish colour. Alga P stores laminarin and forms motile cells with two unequal lateral flagella. Alga Q stores floridean starch and has no flagellated stages. They should be placed in:

14. Arrange the events of gymnosperm pollination.
P. Pollen reaches the opening of an ovule.
Q. Pollen grains are released from microsporangia.
R. Air currents transport the pollen.
S. Pollen is produced as the male gametophyte.

15. The Linnaean artificial system relied mainly on:

16. Chlorophyceae demonstrate body-form diversity through:

17. A leaf-like structure bears one or more sporangia on a pteridophyte sporophyte. It is called a:

18. An algal specimen is unicellular and protein-rich but does not supply agar. It is marketed directly as a dietary supplement. This profile most closely matches:

19. The most reliable distinction between gymnosperms and angiosperms is that:

20. A figure shows a gymnosperm with a short, thick, mostly unbranched stem and a terminal crown of large feather-like leaves. It represents:

21. A complete Chlorophyceae table profile is:

22. Three gymnosperm figures are described.
P. A largely unbranched stem bears a crown of pinnate leaves.
Q. A branched coniferous tree bears male and female cones on the same plant.
R. Long shoots bear dwarf shoots associated with seeds.
The correct identification of P, Q and R is:

23. An unknown large spore from a heterosporous pteridophyte begins developing while associated with the parent plant. The strongest prediction is that it will form:

24. In a gymnosperm, microspore mother cells and megaspore mother cells complete meiosis. All microspores survive, but only one megaspore from each megaspore mother cell remains functional. What is the ratio of surviving microspores to functional megaspores?

25. A figure labels Plant P as a representative dicotyledon and Plant Q as a representative monocotyledon but supplies no other structural information. The safest conclusion is:

26. Match each observation with its character category. A Column II entry is used once.

27. A cone-bearing seed plant produces small microspores and large megaspores in separate sporangia borne on specialised leaves. The reproductive profile shows:

28. In an algal sample, two fusing gametes are unequal in size, but the larger one has not been identified as a non-motile female gamete. On the available evidence, the safest classification is:

29. Comparable brown-algal thalli contain increasing amounts of fucoxanthin from sample P to sample S. The most likely visible trend is:

30. Natural classification differs from a few-character artificial system mainly by assessing:

31. A red-algal profile is entered as follows: phycoerythrin present; floridean starch stored; wall containing cellulose and pectin; motile cells with two equal apical flagella. Which entry must be corrected?

32. An alga contains chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b, stores starch and produces motile cells with equal apical flagella. This profile identifies:

33. In a gymnosperm, an archegonium is located:

34. Algal body organisation spans:

35. Consider the following statements about homosporous pteridophytes.
I. They produce one kind of spore.
II. Homospory is the condition in most pteridophytes.
III. Every homosporous spore is a seed containing an embryo.
IV. Homospory contrasts with production of microspores and megaspores.

36. A moss spore begins germination by forming:

37. Two classification schemes are compared. Scheme P groups plants by habit and colour. Scheme Q uses vegetative traits and gives special importance to androecium structure. Their most appropriate descriptions are:

38. Assertion: A female gymnosperm strobilus belongs to the sporophytic generation.
Reason: It is composed of megasporophylls borne on the diploid plant body.

39. Closely related plants are grown in contrasting environments and develop different growth habits and leaf shapes. An artificial system that emphasises these traits is most likely to:

40. A chemical treatment prevents flagellar movement in Chlorophyceae zoospores without damaging their ability to germinate. The most direct consequence will be:

41. A described Selaginella figure shows a horizontal axis bearing small leaves, true roots arising below and upright branches above. The labelled plant body represents:

42. If a heterosporous pteridophyte loses the ability to retain its female gametophyte, the feature most directly weakened is:

43. A haploid spore released from a bryophyte sporophyte normally develops into:

44. Two plant populations have nearly identical vegetative morphology. One population nevertheless has a distinct chromosome complement and a consistently different profile of chemical constituents. The strongest classification decision is to:

45. Which statement correctly describes the use of marine algae as food?

46. Examine the generation profiles.

P, Q and R represent:

47. The evolutionary significance of female-gametophyte retention is best explained by the fact that it:

48. Fucoxanthin is experimentally removed from a brown-algal pigment extract while chlorophyll a and chlorophyll c remain. The most immediate expected change is:

49. A section through a gymnosperm male strobilus shows many scale-like structures arranged around an axis, each carrying sacs filled with developing pollen grains. The scales and sacs are, respectively:

50. Chlorella and Gracilaria differ in their stated economic roles in that: