Plant Kingdom Mock Test – Class 11 Biology

1. A haploid spore released from a bryophyte sporophyte normally develops into:

2. A described Funaria specimen has a green leafy axis with rhizoids at its base. A stalk rises from the leafy plant and ends in a capsule. The green leafy part and the stalk-capsule unit are, respectively:

3. Following successful gymnosperm fertilisation, the normal developmental relation is:

4. A gymnosperm reproductive axis bears sporophylls spaced far apart rather than tightly packed. The resulting structure is most accurately described as:

5. Consider the following statements about liverworts.
I. Marchantia commonly has a dorsiventral thallus.
II. Gemmae provide vegetative reproduction.
III. The sporophyte may contain foot, seta and capsule.
IV. Spores are produced by mitosis of haploid capsule cells.

6. A hypothetical gymnosperm continues producing microspores and megaspores but loses ovule formation and releases every megaspore before gametophyte development. Its condition would most closely resemble:

7. Consider the following statements about gymnosperm roots.
I. A tap-root system commonly develops.
II. Pinus roots may form mycorrhiza with fungi.
III. Cycas coralloid roots contain nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria.
IV. The root cells of Cycas alone carry out all atmospheric nitrogen fixation.

8. The immediate spore-producing organs borne on gymnosperm microsporophylls are:

9. A section through a gymnosperm male strobilus shows many scale-like structures arranged around an axis, each carrying sacs filled with developing pollen grains. The scales and sacs are, respectively:

10. A seedless vascular plant produces one kind of spore, while another produces microspores and megaspores but no true ovules. The two plants are, respectively:

11. The specialised reproductive leaves that bear gymnosperm ovules are:

12. The immediate developmental product of a germinating pteridophyte spore is:

13. Examine the gametophyte profiles.

The most appropriate conclusion is:

14. A plant has a jointed aerial shoot with distinct nodes and internodes, an underground rhizome and a compact terminal strobilus. It is:

15. A specimen with a chlorophyll-bearing thallus is rejected as an alga solely because it was collected from moist tree bark rather than from water. The rejection is:

16. In Spirogyra, the fusing gametes are similar in size but non-motile. Their fusion is classified as:

17. Consider the following figure-based relations.
I. Selaginella is shown with true roots, stem and leaves.
II. Equisetum possesses nodes, internodes and a terminal strobilus.
III. A fern frond represents the dominant gametophyte.
IV. Salvinia belongs to the pteridophyte comparison set.

18. A simple green thallus grows as a film over damp soil and decaying moist wood. The location alone:

19. In an algal sample, two fusing gametes are unequal in size, but the larger one has not been identified as a non-motile female gamete. On the available evidence, the safest classification is:

20. A group of megasporophylls arranged around a reproductive axis forms:

21. Assertion: A female gymnosperm strobilus belongs to the sporophytic generation.
Reason: It is composed of megasporophylls borne on the diploid plant body.

22. Eucalyptus is included in the angiosperm size comparison as an example of:

23. Three algal figures are described.
P. A green unbranched filament attached by a basal cell.
Q. A brown thallus differentiated into holdfast, stipe and frond.
R. A red branched thallus with no flagellated reproductive stage.
The class sequence for P, Q and R is:

24. A plant group evolves an independent vascular sporophyte but retains a small free-living gametophyte bearing antheridia and archegonia. The reproductive consequence is that the group:

25. Elevation of the moss capsule by the seta is most useful because it:

26. A researcher records every observable character of several plants, converts each character into numerical codes and processes the complete data set with a computer. This procedure represents:

27. Two plants differ in leaf outline but share distinctive internal anatomy, similar embryo development and a closely matching phytochemical profile. A natural system would most reasonably:

28. A female gametophyte remains multicellular but develops entirely within an ovule retained on the parent plant. This arrangement is characteristic of:

29. Arrange the features in a logical progression toward the seed-habit precursor.
P. A young embryo develops within the female gametophyte.
Q. Microspores and megaspores are produced.
R. Sex-specific gametophytes develop.
S. The female gametophyte remains associated with the parent sporophyte.

30. A student labels every fusion between unequal-sized algal gametes as oogamy. The label is too broad since oogamy specifically requires:

31. Antheridia and archegonia of a typical pteridophyte occur on the:

32. Which relation correctly combines gametophytic fate with the site of development in a gymnosperm?

33. Examine the records from a green-algal cell.

The record requiring correction is:

34. Study the comparison below.

Which row requires correction?

35. The dominant free-living generation in bryophytes is the:

36. The sequence most consistent with sexual reproduction in a red alga is:

37. A simple organism is chlorophyll-bearing, autotrophic, thalloid and predominantly aquatic. This combination most strongly identifies it as:

38. A large divided frond arises from the dominant vascular plant body of a seedless species. The frond is best classified as:

39. A fungicide selectively destroys the mycorrhizal partner of young Pinus plants without directly damaging root cells. The earliest likely consequence is:

40. Arrange the events leading to formation of a gymnosperm pollen grain.
P. Microspores develop mitotically.
Q. Microspore mother cells undergo meiosis.
R. Pollen grains are formed.
S. Haploid microspores arise.

41. A described bryophyte figure shows a large green plant body bearing antheridia and archegonia. The labelled body represents the:

42. The clearest body-form distinction between Marchantia and a typical moss leafy stage is that:

43. A moss life-cycle arrangement contains the following stages.
P. Leafy gametophyte
Q. Protonema
R. Capsule-bearing sporophyte
S. Haploid spore
T. Diploid zygote
The correct developmental order is:

44. Destruction of every archegonium in a pteridophyte prothallus will most directly prevent:

45. Assertion: Pteridophyte distribution may remain restricted even though the dominant sporophyte has vascular tissue.
Reason: The free-living gametophyte requires favourable moist sites, and fertilisation depends on external water.

46. A conifer leaf shows a narrow needle form, thick cuticle and sunken stomata. The combined advantage is:

47. A taxonomist compares chromosome length, centromere position and chromosome behaviour during cell division. These observations are most appropriately treated as:

48. A chemical prevents meiosis in the spore mother cells of a pteridophyte but leaves the mature sporophyte alive. The most immediate reproductive failure will be:

49. Consider the following statements about Rhodophyceae.
I. Most members are marine.
II. They are especially common in warmer regions.
III. They may occur at both shallow and considerable depths.
IV. All members are restricted to freshwater ponds.

50. The reproductive progression from heterosporous pteridophytes to gymnosperms is most accurately represented by: