Home» Online Test » Civil Engineering » Online Exam 0% Sorry, time's up. To complete the online test, please restart it. Created by Vikash chaudhary This 'Civil Engineering Online Exam' covers questions across all civil engineering topics. (Hard) Get fresh, new questions in each attempt.(4100+ Question Bank Pool) Total Questions: 50 Time Allotted: 40 minutes Passing Score: 70% Randomization: Yes Certificate: Yes Do not refresh the page! 👍 All the best! 1 / 50 1. If the width of the approach area near the runway end is 150 m, the width of the approach area at a distance of 3 kilometers from the runway end will be a) 1500 m b) 1200 m c) 1000 m d) 800 m 2 / 50 2. The angle formed by the longitudinal axis of the fuselage and the direction of movement of the nose gear a) Pitch angle b) Cockpit cutoff angle c) Castor angle d) Horizontal angle 3 / 50 3. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following a) L.O.M. is installed at 7.2 km from the threshold b) L.M.M. is installed at 1.0 km from the threshold c) Localizer antenna is installed at 300m from the other end of the runway d) Glide slope antenna is installed at the center of the runway about 150m on one side 4 / 50 4. The types of foundation used to transfer heavy load are: a) isolated footing b) combined footing c) grillage foundation d) all of the above 5 / 50 5. The earliest period for removing formwork under normal atmospheric conditions should be: a) 3 days b) 7 days c) 21 days d) 28 days 6 / 50 6. The strength gained by concrete at the age of three days should be: a) 40% b) 60% c) 90% d) 100% 7 / 50 7. Carpet area of a building does not include the area of: a) The walls along with doors and other opening b) Verandah, corridor, and passage c) Bathroom and lavatory kitchen and pantry d) All of the above 8 / 50 8. Whenever an activity has zero total float, then: a) Free float of the activity must be zero but independent float need not be zero b) Independent float must be zero but free float need not be zero c) Free float and independent float both must be zero d) Free float and independent float both need not be zero. 9 / 50 9. A dummy activity in CPM: a) Has no tail event but has only a head event b) Has only a head event but no tail event c) Does not require any resources or any time d) Has no sequence and can be fitted anywhere 10 / 50 10. In PERT, the most likely time is: a) The minimum time in which any activity can possibly be accomplished b) The maximum time which an activity might require c) The time which has the highest probability of occurrence d) None of the above 11 / 50 11. Under metamorphism, which of the following change is correct? a) granite changes into gneiss b) sandstone changes into quartzite c) limestone changes into marble d) all of the above 12 / 50 12. *The over ground continuous kiln is a) bull's trench kiln b) hoffman's kiln c) tunnel kiln d) all of the above 13 / 50 13. *Soundness test of cement determines a) quantity of free lime b) ultimate strength c) durability d) initial setting 14 / 50 14. *The setting and hardening of cement after the addition of water occur due to a) binding action of water b) hydration and hydrolysis of some constituent compounds of cement which act as glue c) evaporation of water d) none of the above 15 / 50 15. Circles of small radii are drawn by means of a: a) Straight bar b) Bow compass c) Lengthening bar d) Drop compass 16 / 50 16. The projection in which the length, breadth, and height of an object are shown in one view is known as: a) Pictorial projection b) Isometric projection c) Cavalier projection d) Cabinet projection 17 / 50 17. The approval of design, drawing before the construction of a building in the city area of Nepal is done by: a) Village Development Committee b) District Development Committee c) Municipality d) None of the above 18 / 50 18. The number of standard bricks in one cubic meter of masonry is: a) 600 bricks b) 500 bricks c) 450 bricks d) 400 bricks 19 / 50 19. Evaluation of building is done based on a) detailed estimate b) plinth area rate c) cube rate d) depreciation method 20 / 50 20. A document showing the list of quantity of various items of works required for the completion of any project is known as a) Schedule of quantity b) Schedule of rates c) Analysis of rate d) Abstract estimate 21 / 50 21. Setback distance is the distance between the road land boundary and building line which depends on a) required sight distance b) radius of horizontal curve c) length of the curve d) all of the above 22 / 50 22. The portion of the road surface, which is used by vehicular traffic, is known as a) carriage way b) shoulder c) express way d) all of the above 23 / 50 23. Pothole maintenance in the case of a road is a) routine maintenance b) periodic maintenance c) recurrent maintenance d) special maintenance 24 / 50 24. In an inclined pipe, the pressure difference at its two ends is due to a) sudden head drop at the inlet b) exit head drop c) frictional loss head d) all of the above 25 / 50 25. The imaginary line drawn such that the tangents at its all points indicate the direction of the velocity of the fluid particle at each point is called a) path line b) stream line c) potential line d) streak line 26 / 50 26. The depth of flow at which the specific energy is minimum is called a) normal depth b) critical depth c) alternate depth d) all of the above 27 / 50 27. The most efficient channel section is a) semi-circular b) rectangular c) triangular d) trapezoidal 28 / 50 28. The main function of a distributory head regulator is a) to regulate the supply entering the distributory from the parent channel b) to control the silt entering into the distributory c) to serve as a meter for discharge measurement d) all of the above 29 / 50 29. Hydrodynamic pressure due to an earthquake acts at a height of a) 3H / 4π above the base b) 4H / 3π above the base c) 4H / 3π below the water surface d) 3H / 4π below the water surface 30 / 50 30. *Depth of canal cross-section such that the quantity of excavation is equal to the earthwork required for banks is known as a) balancing depth b) canal depth c) water depth d) none of the above 31 / 50 31. Maximum bending moment occurs at the center if the simply supported beam is subjected to a) point load of center b) uniformly distributed load throughout the span c) triangular load with maximum intensity at the center d) all of the above 32 / 50 32. *The magnitude of a shear force at a distance of L/4 from either end of a simply supported beam with load P applied at midspan is equal to: a) P b) P/2 c) P/4 d) P/8 33 / 50 33. *A beam is said to be loaded in pure bending when a) Bending moment is constant b) Bending moment is zero c) Bending moment is changing linearly d) Bending moment and shear force are changing linearly 34 / 50 34. For a column of given material, the Rankine's constant depends on a) length of the column. b) diameter of column c) moment of inertia of column d) none of the above 35 / 50 35. A beam of uniform strength will have at every cross-section the same a) deflection b) stiffness c) BM d) bending stress 36 / 50 36. If a solid suffers a change in volume by the application of external loads but recovers its volume immediately after the load is removed, such a soil is termed as: a) Compressive soils b) Plastic solids c) Elastic soils d) Perfect soils 37 / 50 37. The change of moisture content of soils changes a) Angle of repose b) Cohesive strength c) Amount of compaction required d) Any of the above 38 / 50 38. The compression resulting from long-term static load and resulting expulsion of water is known as a) Compaction b) Inverse swelling c) Consolidation d) None of the above 39 / 50 39. The u/s face of an earthen dam is a) An equipotential line b) A phreatic line c) A flow line d) None of the above 40 / 50 40. The vane shear test is used for the in-situ determination of the undrained strength of the intact fully saturated a) Sands b) Clays/cohesive soils c) Gravels d) Highly organic soils 41 / 50 41. The lap length of a direct tension reinforcement bar in an RCC beam should be more than a) 30 times the diameter of the bar b) 48 times the diameter of the bar c) 24 times the diameter of the bar d) twice the development length or 30 times the diameter of the bar 42 / 50 42. A column fails by buckling is called a long column while failure by crushing is called a) big column b) long column c) small column d) short column 43 / 50 43. As per IS: 456, the column is considered as a short column if its slenderness ratio is more than a) 10 b) 15 c) 18 d) 24 44 / 50 44. The most probable value of an observed quantity available from a given set of observations is the one for which the sum of the square of errors is a minimum. This statement is called a) the principle of least square b) the law of errors c) the principle of square errors d) none of the above 45 / 50 45. The place where the reading is taken is known as a) level b) fixed point c) station d) none of the above 46 / 50 46. Leveling across a river is done by a) fly leveling b) reciprocal leveling c) trigonometrical leveling d) cross leveling 47 / 50 47. The open channels supported above the ground over trestles are called a) tunnel b) aqueduct c) flume d) conduit 48 / 50 48. The SODIS method of water purification is a process of: a) Chlorination b) Solar disinfection c) System of disinfected integral supply d) Supply of disinfected and improved water system 49 / 50 49. The design discharge for the combined system shall be taken equal to: a) rainfall b) rainfall + dry weather flow c) rainfall + 2× dry weather flow d) rainfall + 4× dry weather flow 50 / 50 50. A good source of water requiring practically least treatment is a) perennial river b) impounded reservoir c) deep well d) elevated lake Please provide accurate information so we can send your Achievement Certificate by mail. NameEmailPhone Number Your score isShare your achievement! LinkedIn Facebook 0% Restart Test Please provide your feedback. 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