Excretory Products and Their Elimination Mock Test – Class 11 Biology

1. Consider the following statements about atrial natriuretic factor.
I. Increased atrial filling promotes its release.
II. It favours vasodilation.
III. It helps lower blood pressure.
IV. It acts as a check on the renin-angiotensin mechanism.

2. Consider the following properties of normal human urine.
I. It is generally light yellow.
II. It is watery and characteristically odorous.
III. It is slightly acidic.
IV. It normally contains readily detectable glucose and ketone bodies.

3. Arrange the structures in the path followed by urine after it drains from a medullary pyramid.
P. Urinary bladder
Q. Calyx
R. Ureter
S. Renal pelvis
T. Medullary pyramid

4. Isolated collecting ducts are tested under three conditions. In condition P, a strong medullary osmotic gradient and ADH are both present, and water leaves rapidly. In condition Q, the same gradient is present without effective ADH, and water movement is low. In condition R, ADH is present but the surrounding fluid has no osmotic gradient, and water movement is also low. What is the strongest conclusion?

5. Examine the segmental transport records.

Which records are physiologically consistent?

6. Arrange the following parts in the direction followed by filtrate through one nephron.
P. Distal convoluted tubule
Q. Proximal convoluted tubule
R. Bowman’s capsule
S. Loop of Henle

7. Use the pathway described below. Substance P is released from modified cells near the afferent arteriole after a fall in GFR. P acts on circulating substance Q to produce R, which is converted into vasoconstrictor S. Identify P, Q, R and S.

8. Glomerular filtration is normal, but the PCT loses its ability to reabsorb essential nutrients. Later nephron segments remain structurally intact. The earliest expected change is:

9. A person has renal blood flow of , GFR of , and daily urine output of . Which set of derived values is correct?

10. A patient’s kidneys form urine of normal volume, pH and composition. The bladder fills normally, but stretch signals from its wall do not reach the central nervous system. Which outcome is most likely?

11. After a fall in GFR, angiotensin II still constricts blood vessels and stimulates aldosterone release. However, the distal tubules fail to increase reabsorption in response to aldosterone. Which response is expected?

12. Two renal preparations are compared.

Which conclusion is best supported?

13. Consider the following statements about the juxtaglomerular apparatus.
I. It is associated with the DCT.
II. It includes modified cells related to the afferent arteriole.
III. It participates in regulation of GFR.
IV. It is formed where the collecting duct joins the renal pelvis.

14. Urine from the same individual is analysed on several ordinary days and after the development of a metabolic disturbance. Control samples contain no ketone bodies, while every later sample contains them. Collection method, storage and testing procedure remain unchanged. The strongest conclusion is:

15. Repeated testing of a urine sample shows glucose, while ketone bodies are absent. Urine volume and effective ADH action are within their usual ranges. The most justified interpretation is:

16. Arrange the events involved in ADH-mediated water conservation after excessive water loss.
P. Effective body-fluid osmolarity rises and osmoreceptor signalling increases.
Q. Hypothalamic control promotes ADH release from the neurohypophysis.
R. Water reabsorption from later tubular regions and collecting ducts increases.
S. Urine volume decreases and urine becomes more concentrated.

17. Let represent cortical interstitial osmolarity and represent inner-medullary interstitial osmolarity. Let denote water inside a permeable collecting duct and water entering the interstitium. Which relation represents normal concentrating conditions?

18. A person has normal salivary secretion but severely reduced renal removal of nitrogenous wastes. Small quantities of nitrogenous waste continue to appear in saliva, yet blood urea rises. Which conclusion is best supported?

19. Match each regulatory pathway with its initiating condition and principal response. Each Column II entry is used once.

20. At one medullary level, filtrate in structure P moves downward, filtrate in structure Q moves upward, blood in structure R moves downward and blood in structure S moves upward. P and Q are adjacent loop limbs, while R and S are adjacent vasa-recta limbs. Their close arrangement principally supports:

21. An unknown aquatic vertebrate releases nitrogenous waste mainly as ammonium ions across its gills, uses its kidneys only minimally for this waste, and has continuous access to abundant water. It is best classified as ______ since its route permits ______.

22. A person forms of filtrate and excretes of urine per day. What percentage of the filtrate is excreted as urine?

23. Assertion: Angiotensin II stimulates the adrenal medulla to release aldosterone.
Reason: Aldosterone released from the adrenal cortex increases distal and water reabsorption.

24. Match each PCT transport event with its direction. A Column II entry may be reused.

25. Both ureters become completely blocked while the kidneys initially continue forming urine. What is the most immediate system-level consequence?

26. The movements recorded in two limbs of a minute medullary blood vessel are shown below.

Segments P and Q are respectively:

27. Let represent renal blood flow and represent glomerular filtration rate under normal conditions. Which relation correctly distinguishes the two quantities?

28. Consider the following statements about Bowman’s capsule.
I. It is double walled.
II. It is cup shaped.
III. It encloses the glomerulus.
IV. It forms the beginning of the renal tubule.

29. Water flow across the gills of an ammonotelic fish is sharply reduced while its rate of ammonia production remains unchanged. The most likely immediate effect is:

30. Assertion: Blood leaves the glomerulus through an efferent arteriole.
Reason: The glomerular capillaries reunite after receiving blood from the afferent arteriole.

31. Use the arrangement described below. Specialised epithelial cells cover the outer surface of glomerular capillaries. Their interdigitating processes leave minute spaces through which filtrate passes before entering Bowman’s lumen. The cells and spaces are respectively:

32. From the surface inward, region P is a tough covering, region Q is an outer renal zone, and region R is an inner zone containing conical masses. Identify P, Q and R.

33. Arrange the complete haemodialysis sequence.
P. Anti-heparin is added.
Q. Blood passes through porous tubing surrounded by dialysing fluid.
R. Blood is withdrawn through an artery and heparinised.
S. Cleared blood is returned through a vein.
T. Nitrogenous wastes diffuse into the surrounding fluid.

34. Match each protonephridia-bearing organism with its broader animal relationship. Each Column II entry is used once.

35. An isolated vascular preparation constricts after ADH is added. In an intact renal preparation exposed to the same hormone, arterial pressure and a previously depressed GFR rise while the filtration barrier remains unchanged. The observations most strongly support the conclusion that ADH:

36. Nephron P has a short loop that enters the medulla only slightly. Nephron Q has a long loop reaching deep into the medulla. Which vascular comparison is expected?

37. A tracer crosses the glomerular capillary endothelium but is retained before it can reach the podocyte filtration slits. Which component of the filtration barrier most directly accounts for its retention?

38. Blood and dialysing-fluid measurements are shown below.

Which movement is most strongly favoured?

39. The volume of filtrate formed by both kidneys per unit time is termed ______.

40. Transport of out of the ascending limb is selectively blocked, while loop flow, urea recycling and collecting-duct permeability remain unchanged. The most likely result is:

41. Each normal human kidney contains nearly nephrons. The approximate total number in both kidneys is:

42. Two renal lesions are compared.

Which classification is correct?

43. Use the arrangement described below. Structure P is a muscular urine-storage sac. Receptors Q in its wall respond as P fills and send signals to region R. Region R sends output that contracts P while relaxing outlet S. The relationship is accurately interpreted as:

44. A needle is advanced from the outer surface of a kidney toward a calyx through the centre of a medullary pyramid. Which sequence of regions is encountered?

45. A local injury damages all structures passing through the notch on the inner concave surface of one kidney, while the capsule and renal tissue remain initially intact. Which group is most directly at risk?

46. During an attempted micturition response, bladder smooth muscle contracts strongly but the urethral sphincter fails to relax. Which immediate outcome is most likely?

47. A solute enters Bowman’s capsule during filtration. Half is returned to blood along the tubule, while additional molecules of the same solute are later added from blood into tubular fluid. The two tubular processes are:

48. PCT cells remain alive and their blood supply is normal, but most brush-border projections are experimentally removed. All other nephron segments are unchanged. The most direct effect is:

49. The initial filtrate has an osmolarity of approximately . If the kidneys produce urine nearly four times as concentrated, its approximate osmolarity is:

50. Consider the following statements about the PCT.
I. Its lining is simple cuboidal epithelium.
II. Its epithelial cells possess a brush border.
III. The brush border reduces the surface available for transport.
IV. The segment performs extensive reabsorption.