701. Two pure carbohydrates P and Q are known to be either D-glucose or D-galactose.
The two sugars have the same molecular formula and the same open-chain functional-group pattern.
They differ only in configuration at C4.
An investigator performs the following tests separately on both samples:
Statement I: Prolonged heating with HI produces n-hexane from each.
Statement II: Each reacts with hydroxylamine to form an oxime.
Statement III: Complete acetylation of the hydroxyl groups produces a pentaacetate from each.
Statement IV: The three observations uniquely identify which sample is D-glucose and which is D-galactose.
Statement V: The observations establish important common structural features but do not directly determine the configuration at C4.
Assume that each stated reaction proceeds under appropriate conditions.
Which statements are correct?
ⓐ. I, II, III and V only
ⓑ. I, II, III and IV only
ⓒ. II, III and IV only
ⓓ. I, IV and V only
Correct Answer: I, II, III and V only
Explanation: Statement I is correct because glucose and galactose are both aldohexoses with unbranched six-carbon skeletons. Formation of n-hexane through prolonged heating with HI is consistent with this common carbon-chain feature. However, the reaction does not preserve information about the original configurations of their asymmetric carbon atoms. Statement II is correct because both sugars possess an aldehydic carbonyl group in their open-chain structures. Hydroxylamine can therefore react with either sugar to form an oxime. The formation of an oxime establishes carbonyl functionality but does not independently reveal the configuration at C4. Statement III is correct because both molecules contain five hydroxyl groups available for complete acetylation under suitable conditions. Consequently, both can form corresponding pentaacetate derivatives. Statement IV is incorrect because these three observations have the same qualitative interpretation for both candidate sugars. They do not distinguish the particular C4 configuration that differentiates glucose from galactose. Statement V is correct because the reactions establish carbon-chain length, carbonyl functionality and hydroxyl-group count without providing the required stereochemical discrimination. The observations are therefore useful for identifying broad structural features but insufficient for assigning the two individual sugar identities. This illustrates why several chemically correct tests may still fail to identify a compound uniquely when the candidate structures differ only in stereochemical configuration.
702. Two reaction mixtures P and Q initially contain maltose and active maltase under suitable conditions.
The horizontal axis represents reaction time in minutes, from 0 to 5 min.
The vertical axis represents the rate of maltose consumption in \(\mathrm{mol\,min^{-1}}\).
The graph shows idealised, piecewise-constant reaction rates.
For mixture P, the rate is \(0.020\ \mathrm{mol\,min^{-1}}\) from 0 to 3 min.
At exactly 3 min, the experimenter completely inactivates maltase in mixture P using a suitable quenching procedure.
The quenching procedure stops the enzyme-catalysed reaction without changing the amounts of maltose or glucose already present.
Consequently, the rate of maltose consumption in P becomes zero from 3 to 5 min.
For mixture Q, the rate is \(0.030\ \mathrm{mol\,min^{-1}}\) from 0 to 2 min.
Mixture Q is not subjected to the quenching procedure.
Its rate becomes zero at 2 min because all available maltose has been consumed.
The rate in Q remains zero from 2 to 5 min.
The total amount of maltose consumed is represented by the area beneath the corresponding rate–time graph.
Initially, mixture P contains \(0.100\ \mathrm{mol}\) of maltose and mixture Q contains \(0.060\ \mathrm{mol}\) of maltose.
Neither mixture contains glucose initially.
Maltose hydrolysis is the only chemical reaction.
Each consumed maltose molecule produces two glucose molecules.
No nonenzymatic maltose hydrolysis occurs after enzyme inactivation.
Which conclusion is correct after 5 min?
ⓐ. P and Q produce different amounts of glucose because Q has the greater initial rate; both have exhausted their maltose.
ⓑ. P and Q produce equal amounts of glucose, and both retain \(0.040\ \mathrm{mol}\) maltose.
ⓒ. P produces \(0.060\ \mathrm{mol}\) glucose and Q produces \(0.120\ \mathrm{mol}\) glucose; neither contains unreacted maltose.
ⓓ. Both yield \(0.120\ \mathrm{mol}\) glucose; P retains \(0.040\ \mathrm{mol}\) maltose, but Q has exhausted its maltose.
Correct Answer: Both yield \(0.120\ \mathrm{mol}\) glucose; P retains \(0.040\ \mathrm{mol}\) maltose, but Q has exhausted its maltose.
Explanation: \(\textbf{Principle of the rate–time graph:}\)
The area under a rate–time graph gives the total amount of a substance consumed when the vertical axis represents consumption rate.
Since the rate is expressed in \(\mathrm{mol\,min^{-1}}\), multiplying the rate by the corresponding time interval gives the amount of maltose consumed in moles.
\(\textbf{Maltose consumption in mixture P:}\)
The rate of maltose consumption in P remains constant for the first three minutes.
\[
r_P=0.020\ \mathrm{mol\,min^{-1}}
\]
The corresponding reaction duration is:
\[
t_P=3\ \mathrm{min}
\]
Therefore:
\[
n_{\mathrm{consumed,P}}=r_Pt_P
\]
\[
n_{\mathrm{consumed,P}}=0.020\times3
\]
\[
n_{\mathrm{consumed,P}}=0.060\ \mathrm{mol}
\]
At exactly 3 min, maltase is completely inactivated in mixture P.
Consequently, no additional maltose is consumed during the remaining two minutes.
\(\textbf{Maltose remaining in mixture P:}\)
The initial amount of maltose is:
\[
n_{\mathrm{initial,P}}=0.100\ \mathrm{mol}
\]
Subtracting the consumed amount:
\[
n_{\mathrm{remaining,P}}=0.100-0.060
\]
\[
n_{\mathrm{remaining,P}}=0.040\ \mathrm{mol}
\]
Thus, mixture P retains \(0.040\ \mathrm{mol}\) of unreacted maltose.
\(\textbf{Maltose consumption in mixture Q:}\)
The specified idealised rate in Q is:
\[
r_Q=0.030\ \mathrm{mol\,min^{-1}}
\]
This rate is maintained for two minutes.
Therefore:
\[
n_{\mathrm{consumed,Q}}=r_Qt_Q
\]
\[
n_{\mathrm{consumed,Q}}=0.030\times2
\]
\[
n_{\mathrm{consumed,Q}}=0.060\ \mathrm{mol}
\]
\(\textbf{Maltose remaining in mixture Q:}\)
Initially, Q contains \(0.060\ \mathrm{mol}\) maltose.
Hence:
\[
n_{\mathrm{remaining,Q}}=0.060-0.060
\]
\[
n_{\mathrm{remaining,Q}}=0
\]
Therefore, Q exhausts its maltose supply at 2 min.
Its subsequent zero rate is explained by substrate exhaustion rather than deliberate enzyme inactivation.
\(\textbf{Glucose formation from maltose:}\)
Maltose undergoes hydrolysis to produce two glucose molecules per molecule of maltose.
The balanced chemical reaction is:
\[
\mathrm{C_{12}H_{22}O_{11}+H_2O\rightarrow2C_6H_{12}O_6}
\]
Therefore:
\[
n_{\mathrm{glucose}}=2n_{\mathrm{maltose\ consumed}}
\]
For mixture P:
\[
n_{\mathrm{glucose,P}}=2(0.060)
\]
\[
n_{\mathrm{glucose,P}}=0.120\ \mathrm{mol}
\]
For mixture Q:
\[
n_{\mathrm{glucose,Q}}=2(0.060)
\]
\[
n_{\mathrm{glucose,Q}}=0.120\ \mathrm{mol}
\]
Thus, both mixtures produce the same total amount of glucose.
\(\textbf{Interpretation of the zero-rate intervals:}\)
In mixture P, maltose remains available after 3 min, but the experimenter deliberately stops the catalytic reaction by inactivating maltase.
In mixture Q, no deliberate enzyme inactivation occurs. The reaction stops because all available maltose has been consumed.
Therefore, a zero reaction rate does not necessarily imply complete substrate exhaustion.
It can also result from termination of catalytic activity.
\(\textbf{Final comparison:}\)
Both mixtures consume \(0.060\ \mathrm{mol}\) of maltose and produce \(0.120\ \mathrm{mol}\) of glucose.
However, P retains \(0.040\ \mathrm{mol}\) maltose, whereas Q contains no unreacted maltose.
The specified experimental conditions account for the different reasons why the two reaction rates become zero.
\(\textbf{Final answer:}\)
\[
\boxed{\begin{gathered}
n_{\mathrm{glucose,P}}=n_{\mathrm{glucose,Q}}=0.120\ \mathrm{mol}\\
n_{\mathrm{remaining,P}}=0.040\ \mathrm{mol}\\
n_{\mathrm{remaining,Q}}=0
\end{gathered}}
\]
703. Three configurationally related ketohexoses are examined using the notation for relative configuration and optical rotation.
P is naturally occurring D-(−)-fructose.
Q is the complete mirror-image stereoisomer of P, with every asymmetric centre inverted.
R differs from P only in configuration at C3, while its C5 configuration is unchanged.
All three have the same carbon skeleton and possess a ketonic carbonyl group at C2 in their ordinary open-chain structures.
Optical rotations are compared at the same concentration, temperature, wavelength and solvent conditions.
No experimental optical-rotation value is supplied for R.
Which conclusion is necessarily correct?
ⓐ. Q must also be D-(−)-fructose because reversing every asymmetric centre does not affect D/L designation or optical rotation.
ⓑ. Q belongs to the L-series and has optical rotation equal in magnitude but opposite in sign to P; R remains in the D-series, but its rotation sign cannot be deduced merely from the C3 inversion.
ⓒ. Both Q and R belong to the L-series because changing the configuration of any asymmetric carbon reverses the D/L designation.
ⓓ. Q and R must both be dextrorotatory because every stereoisomer differing from a laevorotatory compound rotates light in the opposite direction.
Correct Answer: Q belongs to the L-series and has optical rotation equal in magnitude but opposite in sign to P; R remains in the D-series, but its rotation sign cannot be deduced merely from the C3 inversion.
Explanation: The D/L designation of a carbohydrate describes relative configuration according to its Fischer-projection relationship with the reference configuration. It does not directly indicate whether the substance is dextrorotatory or laevorotatory. P is D-(−)-fructose, showing that a D-series carbohydrate can rotate plane-polarised light towards the negative direction. Q is defined as the complete mirror-image stereoisomer of P. Therefore, all corresponding asymmetric centres have opposite configurations. Its configuration at the lowest asymmetric carbon is inverted, so Q belongs to the L-series. A pair of pure enantiomers has equal-magnitude but opposite-sign optical rotations under identical measurement conditions. Consequently, Q is dextrorotatory with a rotation opposite to that of P. R differs from P only at C3. Because its configuration at C5 remains unchanged, R retains the D-designation. However, R is a diastereomer rather than the complete enantiomer of P. Diastereomeric optical rotations do not follow the universal equal-and-opposite relationship characteristic of enantiomers. Therefore, the sign of R's optical rotation cannot be established solely from the supplied C3 configurational change. The correct answer requires separate application of the D/L assignment rule, the enantiomeric rotation relationship and the distinction between enantiomers and diastereomers.
704. A protein contains a β-pleated-sheet region formed by two extended segments of the same polypeptide chain.
The original polypeptide contains two extended segments P and Q, connected through an intervening peptide segment R.
Hydrogen bonds between backbone C=O and N–H groups of P and Q stabilise their β-pleated-sheet arrangement.
A selective reagent hydrolyses one peptide bond within R, separating the original polypeptide into two covalently independent chains.
All hydrogen bonds between P and Q remain intact during this treatment.
A subsequent treatment disrupts only those intersegment hydrogen bonds without cleaving additional peptide bonds.
No amino acid residue is chemically degraded.
Which statement correctly describes the structural consequences?
ⓐ. The first treatment necessarily destroys the β-pleated-sheet arrangement because hydrogen bonds cannot exist between different polypeptide chains.
ⓑ. The first treatment preserves the original single-chain primary connectivity because hydrogen bonds remain intact, while the second treatment breaks the peptide backbone.
ⓒ. The first treatment converts the β-pleated sheet into an α-helix because separating the chains changes the direction of every backbone hydrogen bond.
ⓓ. The first treatment can preserve the local β-pleated-sheet arrangement while changing the covalent chain connectivity; the second treatment can subsequently disrupt the sheet without further peptide-bond hydrolysis.
Correct Answer: The first treatment can preserve the local β-pleated-sheet arrangement while changing the covalent chain connectivity; the second treatment can subsequently disrupt the sheet without further peptide-bond hydrolysis.
Explanation: Primary protein structure describes the ordered amino acid sequence and its covalent peptide connectivity. Secondary structure describes regular arrangements of the polypeptide backbone, including α-helices and β-pleated sheets. The specified β-pleated sheet is initially formed by two extended regions belonging to the same polypeptide chain. Hydrogen bonds between suitable backbone groups maintain their relative arrangement. The first treatment hydrolyses one peptide bond in the connecting region R. Consequently, the original single polypeptide becomes two covalently independent chains. However, the question explicitly states that the hydrogen bonds between P and Q remain intact. The two extended segments can therefore retain their local β-pleated-sheet arrangement despite the loss of their original continuous covalent connection. A β-pleated sheet does not require every interacting segment to belong to one uninterrupted polypeptide chain. The second treatment instead disrupts the hydrogen bonds maintaining the sheet. It can therefore disturb that secondary-structure arrangement without cleaving additional peptide bonds. The two treatments act on different chemical connections and need not produce identical structural consequences. The experiment demonstrates that local secondary structure, covalent chain continuity and association between different polypeptide chains are related but distinguishable aspects of protein organisation.
705. Two pure samples P and Q contain equal molar amounts of configurationally related glucose molecules.
P contains D-glucose.
Q contains L-glucose, the complete mirror-image stereoisomer of D-glucose.
Both samples have the molecular formula \(\mathrm{C_6H_{12}O_6}\), an aldehydic group in their ordinary open-chain structures and the same number of hydroxyl groups.
Reagent X is an ordinary non-stereoselective oxidising reagent that converts the accessible aldehydic group of either glucose enantiomer into a carboxyl group.
Enzyme E is experimentally established to catalyse a particular transformation of D-glucose but not L-glucose under the stated conditions.
No racemisation occurs.
The products obtained using X and E are examined separately.
Which conclusion is most appropriate?
ⓐ. P and Q must respond identically to E because enantiomers have the same molecular formula and functional-group counts.
ⓑ. X may oxidise P and Q into enantiomeric gluconic acids, whereas enzyme E can distinguish their stereochemistry.
ⓒ. X must convert Q into D-gluconic acid because oxidation of an aldehydic group necessarily reverses every asymmetric centre.
ⓓ. P and Q must possess different numbers of hydroxyl groups because their D/L configurations are opposite.
Correct Answer: X may oxidise P and Q into enantiomeric gluconic acids, whereas enzyme E can distinguish their stereochemistry.
Explanation: D-glucose and L-glucose are enantiomers because their corresponding asymmetric centres have opposite configurations. They have identical molecular formulas and the same types and numbers of ordinary functional groups. Their open-chain structures both contain an aldehydic group at C1. Consequently, a suitable non-stereoselective oxidising reagent can convert this group into a carboxyl group in either sample. Oxidation at C1 does not automatically reverse the configurations of the other asymmetric carbon atoms. Therefore, the corresponding products retain their enantiomeric relationship when no stereochemical change occurs elsewhere. The outcome with enzyme E must be interpreted differently. Enzymes exhibit specificity towards particular substrates and transformations. The problem explicitly establishes that E recognises D-glucose but not L-glucose under the experimental conditions. Thus, E can distinguish the two configurations even though X recognises the same aldehydic functionality in both. The difference does not contradict their shared molecular formula or functional-group inventory. It shows that recognising a chemical functional group and recognising the complete spatial arrangement of a substrate are different requirements. The experiment integrates carbohydrate stereochemistry, selective oxidation and enzyme specificity without assuming that enantiomers must behave identically in a biological catalytic environment.
706. A purified linear pentapeptide contains exactly one residue each of alanine, glycine, serine, valine and lysine.
Its complete amino acid composition is known, but the residue order is initially unknown.
Independent partial hydrolysis experiments produce the following overlapping fragments:
Experiment I identifies the ordered tripeptide Gly–Ser–Val.
Experiment II identifies the ordered dipeptide Ala–Gly.
A selective terminal-group reaction establishes that lysine occupies the C-terminal position.
Every identified fragment retains the original N-terminal-to-C-terminal order.
No residue occurs more than once in the original pentapeptide.
The investigator must determine the unique sequence compatible with all observations.
Which sequence is correct?
ⓐ. Ala–Gly–Ser–Val–Lys
ⓑ. Gly–Ser–Val–Ala–Lys
ⓒ. Ala–Gly–Val–Ser–Lys
ⓓ. Ser–Val–Gly–Ala–Lys
Correct Answer: Ala–Gly–Ser–Val–Lys
Explanation: Primary structure specifies the exact order of amino acid residues in a polypeptide. The experiment identifies fragments rather than merely the total amino acid composition. Experiment I establishes that glycine is followed directly by serine and then valine. Therefore, the original chain must contain the ordered segment Gly–Ser–Val. Experiment II establishes that alanine is followed directly by glycine. These two observations overlap at glycine. Joining them while preserving their individual orders gives Ala–Gly–Ser–Val. The original pentapeptide must also contain one lysine residue. The terminal-group experiment establishes that lysine occupies the C-terminal position. Consequently, lysine must follow valine in the reconstructed sequence. The complete sequence is therefore Ala–Gly–Ser–Val–Lys. Option B places alanine after the Gly–Ser–Val segment and contradicts the observed Ala–Gly fragment. Option C reverses the required Ser–Val order. Option D does not preserve either complete overlapping fragment in its required orientation. The reconstruction demonstrates why ordered partial-hydrolysis fragments and terminal information provide stronger evidence of primary structure than amino acid composition alone.
707. A nutrition investigation examines two characteristic deficiency-related observations in a controlled dietary comparison.
| Observation | Finding |
| P | Bleeding gums associated with inadequate vitamin intake |
| Q | Increased blood clotting time associated with inadequate vitamin intake |
The investigator considers vitamin C and vitamin K.
Vitamin C is water-soluble and is associated with prevention of scurvy.
Vitamin K is fat-soluble and is associated with normal blood clotting.
In the controlled comparison, correcting vitamin C intake improves Observation P without normalising Observation Q.
Correcting vitamin K intake improves Observation Q without correcting Observation P.
No other dietary factor is changed during either intervention.
A student argues that both observations must result from the same vitamin deficiency because both involve bleeding-related manifestations.
Which conclusion is best supported?
ⓐ. Both observations must indicate vitamin K deficiency because vitamin C has no characteristic deficiency condition involving bleeding.
ⓑ. Both observations must indicate vitamin C deficiency because every abnormality involving blood is classified as scurvy.
ⓒ. P indicates vitamin C deficiency and Q vitamin K deficiency; a shared symptom does not establish identical deficiencies.
ⓓ. The observations prove that vitamin C and vitamin K possess identical chemical structures but different solvent impurities.
Correct Answer: P indicates vitamin C deficiency and Q vitamin K deficiency; a shared symptom does not establish identical deficiencies.
Explanation: Vitamin C is ascorbic acid and belongs to the water-soluble vitamin group. NCERT associates its deficiency with scurvy, including characteristic bleeding of the gums. Consequently, Observation P is consistent with inadequate vitamin C intake. Vitamin K belongs to the fat-soluble vitamin group. Its characteristic biological association concerns normal blood clotting, and deficiency can produce increased blood clotting time. Therefore, Observation Q is consistent with inadequate vitamin K intake. The two observations involve blood-related manifestations but do not describe identical biological functions. Their different responses to the controlled dietary corrections provide additional evidence for distinguishing the vitamin requirements. Improvement of P following correction of vitamin C intake supports the association between P and vitamin C. Improvement of Q following correction of vitamin K intake independently supports the corresponding association. The experiment does not require the two vitamins to possess the same chemical structure or solubility classification. Indeed, their classifications differ. The student's reasoning is incorrect because a superficially similar symptom category does not independently establish one common molecular cause. The appropriate interpretation combines the specific NCERT deficiency associations with the results of the controlled dietary comparison.
708. A purified enzyme preparation contains two different polypeptide subunits, P and Q.
The native enzyme is catalytically active when P and Q are associated in their correct spatial arrangement.
A treatment separates the subunits without hydrolysing peptide bonds or disrupting their individual folded conformations.
The separated P and Q subunits are individually tested with the original substrate and show negligible activity.
The two subunits are then mixed under suitable conditions and reassociate into the original arrangement.
Catalytic activity is recovered.
A control experiment confirms that simply increasing the concentration of either isolated subunit does not produce the same recovery.
Consider the following statements.
Statement I: The intact active enzyme possesses quaternary structure.
Statement II: Separation of the subunits necessarily destroys the primary amino acid sequence of each chain.
Statement III: The observations are consistent with a requirement for the correct association of P and Q to obtain the native catalytic function.
Statement IV: Recovery of activity after reassociation proves that the separated subunits must each have been catalytically active when tested alone.
Statement V: Loss of biological activity can result from disruption of subunit organisation even when the individual polypeptide backbones remain intact.
Which statements are correct?
ⓐ. I, II and III only
ⓑ. II, III and IV only
ⓒ. I, III and IV only
ⓓ. I, III and V only
Correct Answer: I, III and V only
Explanation: Statement I is correct because the active preparation contains two polypeptide subunits associated in a defined spatial arrangement. Such an arrangement is characteristic of quaternary protein structure. Statement II is incorrect because separating associated subunits does not necessarily hydrolyse their peptide backbones. The question explicitly states that peptide bonds and the individual folded conformations remain intact. Consequently, the original primary structures of P and Q are preserved. Statement III is correct because neither isolated subunit displays appreciable catalytic activity under the tested conditions, whereas reassociation restores activity. The observation supports the importance of their correct combined organisation for the native catalytic function. Statement IV is incorrect because restoration of activity in the assembled protein does not establish activity in either isolated component. Indeed, the independent measurements indicate negligible activity in both separated preparations. Statement V is correct because the original activity disappears following disruption of subunit association despite preservation of the individual peptide backbones. The loss of activity is therefore not evidence that the proteins have been completely hydrolysed. The experiment demonstrates that catalytic function may depend on organisation at the quaternary level rather than on the mere presence of the correct amino acid residues in separate chains.
709. An ordinary double-stranded DNA fragment contains eight complementary base pairs.
The fragment consists of two antiparallel polynucleotide strands.
It contains five G–C pairs and three A–T pairs.
A selective reagent hydrolyses exactly one internal phosphodiester linkage in the first strand, creating a single nick.
The second strand remains covalently continuous.
All interstrand hydrogen bonds remain intact immediately after nick formation.
The preparation is subsequently heated under conditions that disrupt every interstrand hydrogen bond without breaking additional phosphodiester linkages.
Each covalently continuous polynucleotide segment is counted as one separate chain fragment.
Which statement correctly gives the number of covalently continuous polynucleotide fragments immediately after nick formation, the number after complete separation by heating and the initial total number of interstrand hydrogen bonds?
ⓐ. Two fragments before heating, three after heating and 19 hydrogen bonds
ⓑ. Three fragments before heating, three after heating and 21 hydrogen bonds
ⓒ. Three fragments before heating, four after heating and 21 hydrogen bonds
ⓓ. Two fragments before heating, four after heating and 19 hydrogen bonds
Correct Answer: Three fragments before heating, three after heating and 21 hydrogen bonds
Explanation: \(\textbf{Original DNA backbone connectivity:}\)
The DNA fragment initially contains two antiparallel polynucleotide strands.
Each strand is covalently continuous through its phosphodiester backbone.
\[
N_{\mathrm{covalent\ fragments,initial}}=2
\]
\(\textbf{Effect of the single phosphodiester nick:}\)
The reagent cleaves one internal phosphodiester bond in the first strand.
This divides that strand into two covalently independent segments.
The complementary second strand remains covalently continuous.
\[
N_{\mathrm{fragments,after\ nick}}=2+1
\]
\[
N_{\mathrm{fragments,after\ nick}}=3
\]
\(\textbf{Hydrogen-bond preservation:}\)
The nick does not break the hydrogen bonds between complementary nitrogenous bases.
Consequently, the three covalent fragments can remain associated within one base-paired DNA assembly immediately after nick formation.
Covalent connectivity and physical association through hydrogen bonds are therefore different properties.
\(\textbf{Effect of heating:}\)
The subsequent heating disrupts the interstrand hydrogen bonds.
This separates the previously associated polynucleotide segments.
However, heating does not introduce any additional phosphodiester cleavage.
\[
N_{\mathrm{fragments,after\ heating}}=3
\]
\(\textbf{G–C hydrogen bonds:}\)
Each ordinary G–C base pair contributes three hydrogen bonds.
\[
N_{\mathrm{H,G-C}}=5(3)
\]
\[
N_{\mathrm{H,G-C}}=15
\]
\(\textbf{A–T hydrogen bonds:}\)
Each ordinary A–T pair contributes two hydrogen bonds.
\[
N_{\mathrm{H,A-T}}=3(2)
\]
\[
N_{\mathrm{H,A-T}}=6
\]
\(\textbf{Original total hydrogen bonds:}\)
\[
N_{\mathrm{H,total}}=15+6
\]
\[
N_{\mathrm{H,total}}=21
\]
\(\textbf{Consistency check:}\)
The nick increases the number of covalently independent chain segments without reducing the initial interstrand hydrogen-bond count.
Heating subsequently separates those segments by disrupting hydrogen bonding but does not change the number of covalent fragments.
Therefore, the two treatments have distinguishable effects on the DNA structure.
\(\textbf{Final answer:}\)
\[
\boxed{\begin{gathered}
N_{\mathrm{fragments,after\ nick}}=3\\
N_{\mathrm{fragments,after\ heating}}=3\\
N_{\mathrm{H,initial}}=21
\end{gathered}}
\]
710. Three glucose-derived substances P, Q and R are examined by two independent functional-group tests.
P is ordinary D-glucose.
Q is gluconic acid obtained by selective oxidation of the C1 aldehydic group of glucose.
R is saccharic acid obtained by oxidation of both the C1 aldehydic and C6 primary alcoholic groups.
Each sample contains \(0.050\ \mathrm{mol}\) of the specified substance.
Test I uses sufficient sodium hydrogencarbonate. Each free carboxylic acid group liberates one molecule of carbon dioxide under the stated conditions.
Test II uses excess acetic anhydride, which converts every alcoholic hydroxyl group into an acetate ester but does not acetylate carboxylic acid hydroxyl groups.
All reactions proceed quantitatively, and the six-carbon skeletons remain intact.
Which statement correctly predicts the carbon dioxide evolved from Q and R in Test I and the amount of acetic anhydride consumed by R in Test II?
ⓐ. Q evolves \(0.050\ \mathrm{mol}\) of CO₂, R evolves \(0.050\ \mathrm{mol}\) of CO₂, and R consumes \(0.250\ \mathrm{mol}\) of acetic anhydride.
ⓑ. Q evolves \(0.100\ \mathrm{mol}\) of CO₂, R evolves \(0.050\ \mathrm{mol}\) of CO₂, and R consumes \(0.200\ \mathrm{mol}\) of acetic anhydride.
ⓒ. Q evolves \(0.050\ \mathrm{mol}\) of CO₂, R evolves \(0.100\ \mathrm{mol}\) of CO₂, and R consumes \(0.200\ \mathrm{mol}\) of acetic anhydride.
ⓓ. Q evolves \(0.050\ \mathrm{mol}\) of CO₂, R evolves \(0.100\ \mathrm{mol}\) of CO₂, and R consumes \(0.300\ \mathrm{mol}\) of acetic anhydride.
Correct Answer: Q evolves \(0.050\ \mathrm{mol}\) of CO₂, R evolves \(0.100\ \mathrm{mol}\) of CO₂, and R consumes \(0.200\ \mathrm{mol}\) of acetic anhydride.
Explanation: \(\textbf{Terminal functionalities of the three substances:}\)
Open-chain glucose contains an aldehydic group at C1 and a primary alcoholic group at C6.
Its remaining four alcoholic hydroxyl groups occur at C2 through C5.
Oxidation of C1 produces gluconic acid, whereas oxidation of both terminal groups produces saccharic acid.
\(\textbf{Carboxyl-group inventory:}\)
Glucose P has no carboxylic acid group.
Gluconic acid Q contains one carboxylic acid group at C1.
Saccharic acid R contains two carboxylic acid groups, at C1 and C6.
\(\textbf{Carbon dioxide from Q:}\)
Each carboxylic acid group reacts with sodium hydrogencarbonate to liberate one molecule of carbon dioxide.
\[
n_{\mathrm{CO_2,Q}}=(0.050\ \mathrm{mol})(1)
\]
\[
n_{\mathrm{CO_2,Q}}=0.050\ \mathrm{mol}
\]
\(\textbf{Carbon dioxide from R:}\)
Each molecule of R possesses two free carboxylic acid groups.
\[
n_{\mathrm{CO_2,R}}=(0.050\ \mathrm{mol})(2)
\]
\[
n_{\mathrm{CO_2,R}}=0.100\ \mathrm{mol}
\]
\(\textbf{Alcoholic hydroxyl inventory of R:}\)
Both terminal carbon atoms have been oxidised into carboxylic acid groups.
The four secondary alcoholic hydroxyl groups at C2, C3, C4 and C5 remain.
Therefore:
\[
N_{\mathrm{alcoholic\ OH,R}}=4
\]
\(\textbf{Acetylation requirement:}\)
One molecule of acetic anhydride is consumed for each alcoholic hydroxyl group acetylated.
The carboxylic acid hydroxyl groups are excluded by the specified reagent selectivity.
\[
n_{\mathrm{anhydride,R}}=(0.050\ \mathrm{mol})(4)
\]
\[
n_{\mathrm{anhydride,R}}=0.200\ \mathrm{mol}
\]
\(\textbf{Independent chemical check:}\)
Q retains the original C6 primary alcoholic group and consequently has five alcoholic hydroxyl groups.
R has lost that alcoholic functionality through oxidation, but gained a second carboxylic acid group.
Thus, R evolves more carbon dioxide while requiring less acetic anhydride than an equimolar sample of Q.
The two tests distinguish acidic and alcoholic hydroxyl functionalities rather than merely counting every oxygen-containing group together.
\(\textbf{Final answer:}\)
\[
\boxed{\begin{gathered}
n_{\mathrm{CO_2,Q}}=0.050\ \mathrm{mol}\\
n_{\mathrm{CO_2,R}}=0.100\ \mathrm{mol}\\
n_{\mathrm{anhydride,R}}=0.200\ \mathrm{mol}
\end{gathered}}
\]
711. Three ribose-containing compounds are subjected to a sequence of chemical treatments.
P is free D-ribose, an aldopentose capable of forming a cyclic hemiacetal.
Q is adenosine, in which adenine is attached to the anomeric C1′ position of ribose through a stable N-glycosidic linkage.
R is adenosine 5′-monophosphate, containing the same base–sugar linkage as Q together with one phosphate ester at C5′.
Treatment I removes the phosphate group of R without cleaving any base–sugar linkage.
Treatment II then hydrolyses the base–sugar glycosidic linkages of Q and the phosphate-free product of R.
Neither treatment alters the carbon skeleton of ribose or converts adenine into another base.
Reducing behaviour is evaluated under suitable conditions through access to the open-chain aldehydic form of free ribose.
Which statement correctly describes the availability of reducing functionality during this sequence?
ⓐ. P is reducing; Q and R have blocked anomeric centres and cannot ordinarily open to free ribose aldehydes.
ⓑ. P, Q and R are all initially reducing because every molecule containing ribose must possess a free C1′ hemiacetal hydroxyl group.
ⓒ. Only R is initially reducing because the phosphate group attached at C5′ causes cleavage of the adenine–ribose linkage during the reducing-sugar test.
ⓓ. None of the three can become reducing because attachment of adenine permanently converts the pentose sugar into a ketose, even after complete base–sugar hydrolysis.
Correct Answer: P is reducing; Q and R have blocked anomeric centres and cannot ordinarily open to free ribose aldehydes.
Explanation: D-ribose is an aldopentose whose ordinary open-chain form contains an aldehydic group. The free sugar can also form a cyclic hemiacetal through intramolecular addition. When the anomeric hemiacetal hydroxyl is free, ring–chain interconversion permits access to the open-chain aldehydic form. Consequently, P possesses reducing character under suitable conditions. Q is adenosine, a nucleoside containing adenine covalently attached to ribose. Its base–sugar linkage involves the anomeric C1′ position of the sugar. Therefore, Q does not possess the corresponding free ribose hemiacetal group while that linkage remains intact. R is a nucleotide obtained through additional phosphorylation of the nucleoside at C5′. Its anomeric C1′ position remains occupied by the same base–sugar linkage. Consequently, the additional phosphate group does not restore ordinary free-ribose reducing behaviour. Treatment I removes the C5′ phosphate group from R, converting it into adenosine without breaking its C1′ glycosidic linkage. Thus, phosphate removal alone is insufficient to regenerate free ribose. Treatment II instead hydrolyses the base–sugar linkages of the nucleoside species. This releases adenine and free ribose. The liberated ribose can now undergo ordinary hemiacetal ring–chain interconversion and display reducing behaviour. The experiment demonstrates that the reducing character of a sugar-derived constituent depends on its anomeric connectivity, not merely on the presence of a pentose skeleton within a larger biomolecule.
712. An ordinary linear tetrapeptide has the sequence Gly–Lys–Asp–Ala.
At a specified pH, its free N-terminal alpha-amino group carries charge \(+1\), and its free C-terminal alpha-carboxyl group carries charge \(-1\).
The lysine side-chain amino group carries charge \(+1\), while the aspartic acid side-chain carboxyl group carries charge \(-1\).
All peptide amide groups are uncharged.
Three independently prepared derivatives are examined at the same pH:
Derivative P has only its N-terminal alpha-amino group acetylated, making that terminal group neutral.
Derivative Q has both its N-terminal alpha-amino group acetylated and its C-terminal alpha-carboxyl group converted into a neutral methyl ester.
Derivative R has only its C-terminal alpha-carboxyl group converted into a neutral methyl ester.
The protecting groups remain intact, side-chain charges do not change, and no peptide bond is cleaved.
Which option correctly gives the net charges of P, Q and R, respectively?
ⓐ. \(0,\,-1,\,+1\)
ⓑ. \(-1,\,+1,\,0\)
ⓒ. \(-1,\,0,\,+1\)
ⓓ. \(+1,\,0,\,-1\)
Correct Answer: \(-1,\,0,\,+1\)
Explanation: \(\textbf{Charge inventory of the original tetrapeptide:}\)
The peptide contains two positively charged amino groups and two negatively charged carboxyl groups under the specified conditions.
The positive contributions arise from the N-terminal alpha-amino group and lysine side chain.
The negative contributions arise from the C-terminal alpha-carboxyl group and aspartate side chain.
\[
q_{\mathrm{original}}=(+1)+(+1)+(-1)+(-1)
\]
\[
q_{\mathrm{original}}=0
\]
\(\textbf{N-terminal acetylation in P:}\)
Acetylation converts the original positively charged terminal amino functionality into a neutral amide-derived group.
The original \(+1\) contribution is therefore removed.
All other specified charges remain unchanged.
\[
q_P=0-(+1)
\]
\[
q_P=-1
\]
\(\textbf{Additional C-terminal esterification in Q:}\)
Q possesses the same N-terminal modification as P.
Its C-terminal carboxylate is also converted into a neutral methyl ester.
Removal of the original \(-1\) contribution increases the net charge by one.
\[
q_Q=q_P-(-1)
\]
\[
q_Q=-1+1
\]
\[
q_Q=0
\]
\(\textbf{C-terminal esterification alone in R:}\)
R retains the positively charged N-terminal amino group.
Only its C-terminal carboxylate becomes neutral.
Therefore:
\[
q_R=q_{\mathrm{original}}-(-1)
\]
\[
q_R=+1
\]
\(\textbf{Chemical interpretation:}\)
The three derivatives contain identical ordered amino acid residues.
Their different charges arise from modification of terminal functional groups rather than from replacement of residues or hydrolysis of peptide bonds.
The lysine and aspartate side-chain charges remain unchanged throughout.
Consequently, the original neutral peptide becomes negatively charged after N-terminal protection alone, but positively charged after C-terminal protection alone.
Protection of both termini restores zero net charge under the stipulated conditions.
\(\textbf{Final answer:}\)
\[
\boxed{q_P=-1,\qquad q_Q=0,\qquad q_R=+1}
\]
713. An aqueous solution contains sucrose and an equimolar mixture of D-glucose and L-glucose.
Initially, the solution contains:
\(0.10\ \mathrm{mol}\) of sucrose,
\(0.050\ \mathrm{mol}\) of D-glucose, and
\(0.050\ \mathrm{mol}\) of L-glucose.
Under identical polarimetric conditions, pure sucrose is dextrorotatory.
The specific rotations of D-glucose, L-glucose and D-fructose are taken as \(+52.5^\circ\), \(-52.5^\circ\) and \(-92.4^\circ\), respectively.
The optical contributions of different solutes are additive and proportional to their masses multiplied by their specific rotations.
The original sucrose is hydrolysed completely, yielding equimolar D-glucose and D-fructose.
The initially present D-glucose and L-glucose remain chemically unchanged.
The solution volume is maintained constant.
All free monosaccharides are reducing under suitable alkaline test conditions, whereas intact sucrose is non-reducing.
Which statement correctly predicts the direction of optical rotation before and after hydrolysis and the total amount of reducing carbohydrate molecules?
ⓐ. The solution changes from dextrorotatory to laevorotatory, while reducing carbohydrate molecules increase from \(0.10\ \mathrm{mol}\) to \(0.30\ \mathrm{mol}\).
ⓑ. The solution changes from laevorotatory to dextrorotatory, while reducing carbohydrate molecules increase from \(0.10\ \mathrm{mol}\) to \(0.20\ \mathrm{mol}\).
ⓒ. The solution remains dextrorotatory because the D-glucose initially present prevents optical inversion, while reducing carbohydrate molecules increase to \(0.30\ \mathrm{mol}\).
ⓓ. The solution becomes optically inactive because every molecule of sucrose produces equal quantities of two reducing monosaccharides, while reducing carbohydrate molecules remain at \(0.10\ \mathrm{mol}\).
Correct Answer: The solution changes from dextrorotatory to laevorotatory, while reducing carbohydrate molecules increase from \(0.10\ \mathrm{mol}\) to \(0.30\ \mathrm{mol}\).
Explanation: \(\textbf{Optical contribution of the original glucose enantiomers:}\)
D-glucose and L-glucose are enantiomers with equal-magnitude but opposite-sign specific rotations.
They are initially present in equal molar amounts.
Since their molar masses are identical, their masses are also equal.
Their optical contributions therefore cancel exactly.
\[
R_{\mathrm{D\text{-}glucose}}+R_{\mathrm{L\text{-}glucose}}=0
\]
\(\textbf{Rotation before sucrose hydrolysis:}\)
Sucrose is initially present and is dextrorotatory.
The original D-glucose/L-glucose mixture makes no net contribution.
Therefore, the initial observed optical rotation is positive.
\[
R_{\mathrm{initial}}\gt0
\]
\(\textbf{Monosaccharides released by sucrose hydrolysis:}\)
Complete hydrolysis of one mole of sucrose yields one mole each of glucose and fructose.
For the specified amount:
\[
n_{\mathrm{D\text{-}glucose,formed}}=0.10\ \mathrm{mol}
\]
\[
n_{\mathrm{D\text{-}fructose,formed}}=0.10\ \mathrm{mol}
\]
\(\textbf{Rotation contributions of the hydrolysis products:}\)
Glucose and fructose have equal molar masses of \(180\ \mathrm{g\,mol^{-1}}\).
Their respective masses formed are:
\[
m_{\mathrm{glucose}}=0.10(180)=18.0\ \mathrm{g}
\]
\[
m_{\mathrm{fructose}}=0.10(180)=18.0\ \mathrm{g}
\]
Their combined optical contribution is proportional to:
\[
R_{\mathrm{products}}\propto18.0(52.5)+18.0(-92.4)
\]
\[
R_{\mathrm{products}}\propto945-1663.2
\]
\[
R_{\mathrm{products}}\propto-718.2
\]
The negative fructose contribution exceeds the positive glucose contribution.
\(\textbf{Rotation after hydrolysis:}\)
The original equal D-glucose/L-glucose contributions still cancel.
No sucrose remains to contribute positive rotation.
Therefore:
\[
R_{\mathrm{final}}\lt0
\]
\(\textbf{Initially reducing carbohydrate molecules:}\)
Both free glucose enantiomers are reducing.
Intact sucrose is non-reducing.
\[
n_{\mathrm{reducing,initial}}=0.050+0.050
\]
\[
n_{\mathrm{reducing,initial}}=0.10\ \mathrm{mol}
\]
\(\textbf{Reducing carbohydrate molecules after hydrolysis:}\)
The initial glucose enantiomers remain available.
Sucrose hydrolysis introduces an additional \(0.10\ \mathrm{mol}\) each of free glucose and fructose.
\[
n_{\mathrm{reducing,final}}=0.050+0.050+0.10+0.10
\]
\[
n_{\mathrm{reducing,final}}=0.30\ \mathrm{mol}
\]
\(\textbf{Consistency check:}\)
Optical inactivity of an equimolar enantiomeric glucose mixture does not imply that its molecules are non-reducing.
Optical rotation and reducing behaviour measure different chemical properties.
Sucrose hydrolysis therefore changes both the net optical rotation and the number of available reducing molecules, but through different structural considerations.
\(\textbf{Final answer:}\)
\[
\boxed{\begin{gathered}
R_{\mathrm{initial}}\gt0,\qquad R_{\mathrm{final}}\lt0\\
n_{\mathrm{reducing}}:\ 0.10\longrightarrow0.30\ \mathrm{mol}
\end{gathered}}
\]
714. Three ordinary dipeptides are prepared from stereochemically specified alanine and serine molecules.
P has the sequence L-Ala–L-Ser.
Q has the sequence D-Ala–D-Ser.
R has the sequence L-Ser–L-Ala.
S has the sequence L-Ala–D-Ser.
Each residue contains one asymmetric alpha carbon.
Ala–Ser and Ser–Ala denote different amino-terminal-to-carboxyl-terminal residue orders.
No peptide-bond cis/trans stereoisomerism or alternative conformation is considered.
All four dipeptides have ordinary peptide-bond connectivity and no additional stereogenic elements.
Which statement correctly describes their relationships?
ⓐ. P and R are enantiomers because exchanging amino-terminal and carboxyl-terminal residues reverses every asymmetric centre.
ⓑ. P and Q are enantiomers; P and S are diastereomers; P and R differ in primary residue order rather than merely in stereochemical configuration.
ⓒ. P and S are enantiomers because they differ at the serine asymmetric carbon alone, while P and Q are constitutional isomers.
ⓓ. P, Q, R and S are all anomers because their different stereochemical descriptions concern cyclic hemiacetal centres.
Correct Answer: P and Q are enantiomers; P and S are diastereomers; P and R differ in primary residue order rather than merely in stereochemical configuration.
Explanation: The primary structure of a peptide includes the ordered sequence of its amino acid residues. Stereochemical configuration describes the spatial arrangement around its asymmetric centres. These two structural features must be distinguished. P contains L-alanine followed by L-serine. Q has exactly the same residue order, but both asymmetric centres have the opposite configuration. Since no other stereogenic elements are considered, P and Q form an enantiomeric pair. S also retains the Ala–Ser residue order. However, only the serine asymmetric centre has been inverted relative to P. The alanine centre retains its original configuration. Therefore, P and S are diastereomers rather than complete mirror-image enantiomers. R differs from P in a more fundamental way because it has the sequence Ser–Ala instead of Ala–Ser. The identities occupying its amino-terminal and carboxyl-terminal positions have been exchanged. This changes its primary residue order and chemical connectivity pattern. Consequently, P and R cannot be classified merely as configurational stereoisomers of the same ordered dipeptide. None of these relationships involves cyclic hemiacetal or hemiketal anomeric centres. The correct distinction requires examining residue connectivity first and stereogenic-centre configurations second.
715. A hypothetical branched glucose oligosaccharide contains seven α-D-glucose residues arranged as shown.
The main chain contains four glucose residues, A–B–C–D, connected consecutively through α-(1→4) linkages.
A three-residue side chain, E–F–G, also contains consecutive α-(1→4) linkages.
Residue E is attached through its anomeric C1 to the C6 hydroxyl position of residue B, forming one α-(1→6) branch linkage.
Thus, the complete molecule contains five α-(1→4) linkages and one α-(1→6) linkage.
Treatment I hydrolyses every α-(1→4) linkage but leaves the α-(1→6) linkage intact.
Treatment II subsequently hydrolyses the remaining α-(1→6) linkage.
Each glycosidic-bond hydrolysis consumes one water molecule.
No monosaccharide is lost or degraded.
For one mole of the original oligosaccharide, which statement correctly gives the products after Treatment I and the additional water consumed during Treatment II?
ⓐ. Treatment I produces seven free glucose molecules, and Treatment II consumes no additional water.
ⓑ. Treatment I produces one trisaccharide and four free glucose molecules, and Treatment II consumes one additional mole of water.
ⓒ. Treatment I produces two disaccharides and three free glucose molecules, and Treatment II consumes two additional moles of water.
ⓓ. Treatment I produces one disaccharide and five free glucose molecules, and Treatment II consumes one additional mole of water.
Correct Answer: Treatment I produces one disaccharide and five free glucose molecules, and Treatment II consumes one additional mole of water.
Explanation: \(\textbf{Original glycosidic connectivity:}\)
The four-residue main chain contains three α-(1→4) linkages.
The three-residue side chain contains two more α-(1→4) linkages.
One α-(1→6) linkage attaches the side chain to the main chain.
\[
N_{\alpha(1\rightarrow4)}=3+2=5
\]
\[
N_{\alpha(1\rightarrow6)}=1
\]
\(\textbf{Selective cleavage during Treatment I:}\)
Treatment I hydrolyses all five α-(1→4) linkages.
Therefore, the original main-chain connections A–B, B–C and C–D are broken.
The side-chain connections E–F and F–G are also broken.
\(\textbf{Connection that survives:}\)
The α-(1→6) linkage between B and E remains intact.
Thus, B and E remain joined as one disaccharide.
The other five residues, A, C, D, F and G, become independent glucose molecules.
\(\textbf{Product inventory after Treatment I:}\)
\[
N_{\mathrm{disaccharides}}=1
\]
\[
N_{\mathrm{free\ glucose}}=5
\]
The total number of glucose-derived units is conserved.
\[
2(1)+5=7
\]
\(\textbf{Water consumed during Treatment I:}\)
Each of the five hydrolysed α-(1→4) linkages consumes one water molecule.
\[
n_{\mathrm{H_2O,I}}=5\ \mathrm{mol}
\]
\(\textbf{Hydrolysis during Treatment II:}\)
The only remaining inter-residue connection is the α-(1→6) linkage in the B–E disaccharide.
Treatment II hydrolyses this bond.
\[
n_{\mathrm{H_2O,II}}=1\ \mathrm{mol}
\]
The B–E disaccharide consequently releases two additional free glucose molecules.
\(\textbf{Final product and water balance:}\)
\[
N_{\mathrm{free\ glucose,final}}=5+2=7
\]
\[
n_{\mathrm{H_2O,total}}=5+1
\]
\[
n_{\mathrm{H_2O,total}}=6\ \mathrm{mol}
\]
\(\textbf{Consistency check:}\)
A single connected oligosaccharide containing seven glucose residues requires six inter-residue linkages.
Complete hydrolysis of all six linkages must consume six water molecules per original molecule.
The two-stage consumption agrees with that requirement.
The key distinction is that Treatment I removes the linear α-(1→4) connections while retaining the one branch-forming α-(1→6) linkage.
\(\textbf{Final answer:}\)
\[
\boxed{\begin{gathered}
\text{After I: }1\text{ disaccharide}+5\text{ glucose molecules}\\
n_{\mathrm{H_2O,II}}=1\ \mathrm{mol}
\end{gathered}}
\]
716. Four nutrient preparations are analysed using solubility and the characteristic deficiency associations of their constituent vitamins.
| Preparation | Vitamin present | Observed chemical property |
| P | Vitamin B₁ | Water-soluble |
| Q | Vitamin B₂ | Water-soluble |
| R | Vitamin B₁₂ | Water-soluble |
| S | Vitamin E | Fat-soluble |
A student makes the following deductions.
Statement I: P and Q belong to the same solubility class, but their characteristic NCERT deficiency conditions differ.
Statement II: R belongs to the water-soluble group but is an exception to the usual statement that water-soluble vitamins are not stored in the body.
Statement III: S is associated with increased fragility of red blood cells on deficiency, although its solubility class differs from that of P, Q and R.
Statement IV: Because P, Q and R are water-soluble, they must possess identical molecular structures and cause the same deficiency disease.
Statement V: The name vitamin B₁₂ necessarily implies that it contains twelve peptide bonds.
Which statements are correct?
ⓐ. I, II and III only
ⓑ. I, III and IV only
ⓒ. II, III and V only
ⓓ. I, II, IV and V only
Correct Answer: I, II and III only
Explanation: Statement I is correct because vitamin B₁ and vitamin B₂ are both water-soluble vitamins, but their characteristic deficiency associations are different. Vitamin B₁, or thiamine, is associated with beri-beri, whereas vitamin B₂, or riboflavin, is associated with cheilosis and related symptoms. Statement II is correct because NCERT identifies vitamin B₁₂ as an exception to the general statement about the poor storage of water-soluble vitamins. The fact that B₁₂ can be stored does not change its classification as water-soluble. Statement III is correct because vitamin E belongs to the fat-soluble group and its deficiency is associated with increased fragility of red blood cells and muscular weakness. Statement IV is incorrect because a common solubility class does not imply identical molecular constitution or identical physiological functions. Individual B-group vitamins are chemically and biologically distinct substances. Statement V is incorrect because the numerical designation in vitamin B₁₂ is a naming convention rather than a count of peptide bonds. Vitamins are not universally polypeptides. The comparison shows that solubility, storage behaviour, molecular constitution and deficiency manifestations must be assessed independently. Correct interpretation requires preserving the explicit NCERT exception for B₁₂ without extending that exception to all water-soluble vitamins.
717. Two purified glucose polymers are treated with different enzymes.
P consists of long, unbranched chains of α-D-glucose residues joined through α-(1→4) glycosidic linkages.
Q consists of long, unbranched chains of β-D-glucose residues joined through β-(1→4) glycosidic linkages.
Enzyme E selectively hydrolyses α-(1→4) linkages but does not hydrolyse β-(1→4) linkages.
Enzyme F selectively hydrolyses β-(1→4) linkages but does not hydrolyse α-(1→4) linkages.
Complete acid hydrolysis of either polymer produces only glucose.
A student concludes that P and Q must be structurally identical because the final monosaccharide obtained from complete acid hydrolysis is the same.
Which statement correctly evaluates the conclusion?
ⓐ. The conclusion is correct because complete hydrolysis to glucose proves identical glycosidic stereochemistry in the original polymers.
ⓑ. The conclusion is incorrect only because P contains fructose, whereas Q contains glucose.
ⓒ. The conclusion is correct because anomeric configuration has no structural significance once a glycosidic bond is formed.
ⓓ. The conclusion is incorrect: P is amylose-like and Q cellulose-like; their enzyme responses reveal different glycosidic linkages.
Correct Answer: The conclusion is incorrect: P is amylose-like and Q cellulose-like; their enzyme responses reveal different glycosidic linkages.
Explanation: Both P and Q contain glucose-derived residues, so complete hydrolysis of either can yield free glucose. However, the identity of the constituent monosaccharide does not fully describe the original polymeric structure. Amylose contains essentially unbranched α-D-glucose chains with α-(1→4) linkages. Cellulose contains β-D-glucose residues connected through β-(1→4) linkages. Therefore, P possesses amylose-like connectivity, while Q possesses cellulose-like connectivity. The difference concerns the configuration at the anomeric carbon participating in the glycosidic linkage. Enzyme E is specified to recognise the alpha linkage type and can therefore hydrolyse P. It cannot hydrolyse Q through that linkage-selective mechanism. Conversely, enzyme F can hydrolyse Q through its beta linkages but not P through its alpha linkages. The two polymers can consequently show different enzymatic responses despite producing the same monosaccharide after complete acid hydrolysis. The experiment distinguishes monomer composition from the stereochemistry of inter-unit connectivity. It also demonstrates why enzyme specificity can reveal structural information that is lost when a polymer is completely broken down into its constituent monosaccharides.
718. A polypeptide contains four residues in the sequence Lys–Asp–Gly–Glu.
At pH P, its free N-terminal amino group and lysine side-chain amino group each carry charge \(+1\).
The free C-terminal carboxyl group and the side-chain carboxyl groups of aspartic acid and glutamic acid each carry charge \(-1\).
All peptide amide groups are neutral.
At pH Q, only the aspartic acid side-chain carboxyl group becomes protonated and electrically neutral.
At pH R, starting again from the original pH P conditions, the lysine side-chain amino group instead becomes deprotonated and neutral; every other ionisation state remains as at pH P.
These are specified limiting chemical states; no numerical acid-dissociation constants are required.
Which statement correctly gives the net charges at P, Q and R, respectively?
ⓐ. \(0,\,+1,\,-1\)
ⓑ. \(-1,\,0,\,-2\)
ⓒ. \(-1,\,-2,\,0\)
ⓓ. \(-2,\,-1,\,-3\)
Correct Answer: \(-1,\,0,\,-2\)
Explanation: \(\textbf{Charge inventory at pH P:}\)
There are two positively charged amino groups.
One belongs to the N-terminal alpha-amino functionality.
The other belongs to the lysine side chain.
There are three negatively charged carboxylate groups.
One is the C-terminal alpha-carboxylate, while the others belong to aspartate and glutamate side chains.
\[
q_P=2(+1)+3(-1)
\]
\[
q_P=+2-3
\]
\[
q_P=-1
\]
\(\textbf{Change at pH Q:}\)
Only the aspartate side-chain carboxylate is protonated.
It changes from charge \(-1\) to zero.
The total molecular charge therefore increases by one.
\[
\Delta q_{P\rightarrow Q}=0-(-1)
\]
\[
\Delta q_{P\rightarrow Q}=+1
\]
\[
q_Q=-1+1
\]
\[
q_Q=0
\]
\(\textbf{Independent change at pH R:}\)
The experiment returns to the original pH P ionisation pattern before applying the change specified for R.
Only the lysine side-chain amino group loses its positive charge.
\[
\Delta q_{P\rightarrow R}=0-(+1)
\]
\[
\Delta q_{P\rightarrow R}=-1
\]
\[
q_R=-1-1
\]
\[
q_R=-2
\]
\(\textbf{Chemical interpretation:}\)
The peptide contains the same amino acid residues and the same number of peptide bonds under all three conditions.
Only the specified protonation states change.
Neutralising an originally negative group makes the total charge more positive, whereas neutralising an originally positive group makes it more negative.
These changes do not require cleavage of the peptide backbone or replacement of an amino acid residue.
\(\textbf{Final answer:}\)
\[
\boxed{q_P=-1,\qquad q_Q=0,\qquad q_R=-2}
\]
719. A native enzyme catalyses the conversion of substrate S into product P.
Four reaction mixtures are prepared using equal initial amounts of S.
Mixture I contains freshly prepared active enzyme and is maintained at a suitable temperature.
Mixture II contains enzyme that has been heated sufficiently to cause irreversible loss of its native catalytic conformation before addition to S.
Mixture III contains freshly prepared active enzyme but no S.
Mixture IV initially contains active enzyme and S; after a measurable amount of P has formed, the enzyme is completely denatured without chemically affecting S or P.
The reaction is allowed to continue under otherwise suitable conditions.
The uncatalysed conversion of S into P is very slow but not strictly impossible.
Which conclusion is most defensible?
ⓐ. Mixture II must produce P at the same accelerated rate as Mixture I because heating leaves the enzyme's primary structure intact.
ⓑ. Mixture III must produce P because the presence of active enzyme is sufficient even when the specified substrate is absent.
ⓒ. Mixture IV cannot contain any P after denaturation because loss of enzyme activity reverses all product already formed.
ⓓ. I converts the substrate catalytically; II lacks native enzyme activity; III lacks substrate; IV retains product but loses further catalysis.
Correct Answer: I converts the substrate catalytically; II lacks native enzyme activity; III lacks substrate; IV retains product but loses further catalysis.
Explanation: An enzyme is a biological catalyst that increases the rate of a particular chemical transformation. Its activity depends on possessing an appropriate molecular structure. Mixture I contains active enzyme and its substrate under suitable conditions, so it can exhibit catalytic conversion. In Mixture II, the enzyme has undergone irreversible denaturation before being introduced into the reaction mixture. Preservation of peptide bonds does not guarantee preservation of the folded catalytic arrangement. Consequently, Mixture II need not show the acceleration produced by the native enzyme. The uncatalysed reaction is still described as very slow, so absence of catalytic activity should not be confused with absolute chemical impossibility. Mixture III contains active enzyme but lacks the specified substrate. The catalyst cannot convert an absent substrate into the designated product. Mixture IV differs because some product forms before the enzyme is denatured. Subsequent denaturation can eliminate further enzyme-mediated acceleration without automatically destroying product already formed. The problem explicitly excludes direct chemical alteration of S or P during denaturation. Therefore, the observations distinguish substrate availability, enzyme conformation, catalytic action and product preservation. The experiment also demonstrates why detecting product after an enzyme has been denatured does not prove that the denatured enzyme remains catalytically active.
720. Three ordinary DNA fragments P, Q and R contain equal numbers of base pairs.
The horizontal axis represents the number of G–C base pairs in an eight-base-pair DNA fragment.
The vertical axis represents the total number of hydrogen bonds between complementary bases.
The graph is a straight line passing through the points (0, 16), (4, 20) and (8, 24).
Assume that each A–T pair contributes two hydrogen bonds and each G–C pair contributes three.
Fragment P corresponds to the point (2, 18).
Fragment Q corresponds to the point (6, 22).
Fragment R initially has the same number of G–C pairs as P.
A hypothetical change replaces two A–T pairs in R with G–C pairs without changing the total number of base pairs.
Which statement correctly compares the fragments after the change?
ⓐ. R has the same total hydrogen-bond count as Q because two replacements increase its hydrogen-bond count by four.
ⓑ. R has 20 hydrogen bonds and contains four G–C pairs; it lies midway between P and Q in both G–C content and hydrogen-bond count.
ⓒ. R has 18 hydrogen bonds because changing complementary base-pair identity cannot change the hydrogen-bond count.
ⓓ. R has 22 hydrogen bonds because converting an A–T pair into a G–C pair contributes two additional hydrogen bonds.
Correct Answer: R has 20 hydrogen bonds and contains four G–C pairs; it lies midway between P and Q in both G–C content and hydrogen-bond count.
Explanation: \(\textbf{Governing base-pair relationship:}\)
Every fragment contains eight complementary base pairs.
If the number of G–C pairs is \(g\), then the number of A–T pairs is \(8-g\).
\[
N_{\mathrm{A-T}}=8-g
\]
The total hydrogen-bond count is:
\[
H=3g+2(8-g)
\]
\[
H=16+g
\]
\(\textbf{Initial composition of R:}\)
R initially has the same G–C count as P.
P corresponds to \(g=2\).
Therefore:
\[
g_{\mathrm{R,initial}}=2
\]
\[
H_{\mathrm{R,initial}}=16+2=18
\]
\(\textbf{Effect of the two substitutions:}\)
Each replacement removes one A–T pair and introduces one G–C pair.
The number of G–C pairs therefore increases by two.
\[
g_{\mathrm{R,final}}=2+2
\]
\[
g_{\mathrm{R,final}}=4
\]
\(\textbf{Recalculated hydrogen-bond count:}\)
\[
H_{\mathrm{R,final}}=16+4
\]
\[
H_{\mathrm{R,final}}=20
\]
\(\textbf{Comparison with P and Q:}\)
P has two G–C pairs and eighteen hydrogen bonds.
Q has six G–C pairs and twenty-two hydrogen bonds.
R after modification has four G–C pairs and twenty hydrogen bonds.
\[
g_R=\frac{2+6}{2}=4
\]
\[
H_R=\frac{18+22}{2}=20
\]
\(\textbf{Interpretation of the graph:}\)
The straight-line relationship arises because replacing an A–T pair with a G–C pair adds one hydrogen bond while preserving the total number of base pairs.
The change is not two hydrogen bonds per substitution.
Thus, R lies midway between P and Q for both quantities represented by the graph.
\(\textbf{Final answer:}\)
\[
\boxed{N_{\mathrm{G-C,R}}=4;\qquad H_R=20}
\]