Organic Compounds Containing Halogens MCQs With Answers – Part 6 (NEET Chemistry)
GKaim: Measure | Improve | Achieve

Organic Compounds Containing Halogens MCQs with Answers – Part 6 (NEET Chemistry)

Timer: Off
Random: Off

501. Two historically used refrigerants are compared: P: Chlorodifluoromethane (R-22), \(\mathrm{CHClF_2}\) Q: Dichlorodifluoromethane (Freon-12), \(\mathrm{CCl_2F_2}\) Which statement correctly combines their molecular structures with the characteristic ozone-depletion mechanism of chlorine-containing refrigerants?
ⓐ. P and Q contain the same number of chlorine atoms, and fluorine radicals alone explain the classical CFC ozone-depletion cycle
ⓑ. P contains no carbon–hydrogen bond, while Q contains one; both lack carbon–chlorine bonds
ⓒ. Q has one carbon–chlorine bond, whereas P has two; ozone depletion requires the release of molecular chlorine only
ⓓ. P has one C–Cl and one C–H bond; Q has two C–Cl and no C–H bonds; chlorine radicals can deplete ozone
502. Two environmental monitoring stations examine atmospheric ozone and ultraviolet radiation. Station P records a decrease in stratospheric ozone together with an increase in the ultraviolet radiation reaching the ground. Station Q records a decrease in the local concentration of a chlorofluorocarbon near the ground but continued detection of that compound in the stratosphere. Consider the following statements. Statement I: Stratospheric ozone absorbs part of the incoming ultraviolet radiation, so depletion of this layer can increase surface exposure to harmful ultraviolet radiation. Statement II: A chlorofluorocarbon concentration decrease at one ground-level station proves that every molecule of the compound has undergone chemical decomposition. Statement III: Relative stability in the lower atmosphere and photochemical decomposition under sufficiently energetic stratospheric ultraviolet radiation are compatible properties of the same chlorofluorocarbon. Statement IV: Ozone depletion and DDT biomagnification are identical chemical mechanisms because both are associated with persistent organohalogen compounds. Which combination is correct?
ⓐ. I and II only
ⓑ. II and IV only
ⓒ. I, III and IV only
ⓓ. I and III only
503. Pure \((Z)\)-pent-2-ene and pure \((E)\)-pent-2-ene undergo separate additions of bromine in an achiral inert solvent. Assume that both reactions proceed exclusively by anti addition, and that all stereoisomeric products are isolated without further reaction. The constitutional product from each alkene is 2,3-dibromopentane. Which conclusion correctly compares the possible products from the two starting geometrical isomers?
ⓐ. Both starting alkenes yield only the same meso product because each product contains two bromine atoms
ⓑ. The Z alkene gives a racemic pair, whereas the E alkene gives a meso product because anti addition always makes trans alkenes meso
ⓒ. Each starting alkene gives a different enantiomeric pair; no meso form is possible because the two ends of the product's carbon skeleton are different
ⓓ. Both starting alkenes give exactly the same enantiomeric pair because the bromine reagent is achiral
504. Chlorobenzene and nitrobenzene are treated separately with chloromethane and anhydrous aluminium chloride under suitable Friedel–Crafts alkylation conditions. A student makes the following predictions. P: Chlorobenzene may undergo ring alkylation to give ortho- and para-chlorotoluene, although its chlorine substituent deactivates the ring relative to benzene. Q: Nitrobenzene should undergo efficient meta-directed Friedel–Crafts methylation because its nitro group is meta directing. Which assessment is most appropriate?
ⓐ. Both predictions are correct because every meta-directing substituent activates a benzene ring towards Friedel–Crafts alkylation
ⓑ. P is incorrect because an aromatic chlorine substituent prevents all electrophilic aromatic substitution
ⓒ. P is correct, while Q is incorrect because the strongly deactivated nitrobenzene ring is unsuitable for ordinary Friedel–Crafts alkylation
ⓓ. Both predictions are incorrect because chloromethane cannot provide a methyl group under Friedel–Crafts conditions
505. The two geometrical isomers of 1,2-dichloroethene, \(\mathrm{CHCl{=}CHCl}\), are compared.
In P, both chlorine atoms lie on the same side of the planar carbon–carbon double bond. In Q, the chlorine atoms lie on opposite sides of that double bond. The carbon–chlorine bonds have equal bond-dipole magnitudes in both structures. Each chlorine atom is directly attached to a double-bonded carbon.
Consider the following statements. Statement I: P can have a non-zero resultant molecular dipole, whereas the corresponding carbon–chlorine dipole contributions in Q cancel by molecular symmetry. Statement II: P should be classified as an ordinary primary alkyl chloride because each chlorine-bearing carbon has a hydrogen atom. Statement III: Neither P nor Q possesses a carbon–chlorine bond at an ordinary saturated \(sp^3\)-hybridised alkyl reaction centre. Statement IV: Ordinary \(S_\mathrm{N}2\) substitution at the chlorine-bearing carbon can be assumed equally feasible for P, Q and chloroethane merely because all contain polar carbon–chlorine bonds. Which combination is correct?
ⓐ. I, II and III only
ⓑ. I and III only
ⓒ. II, III and IV only
ⓓ. I, III and IV only
506. Three halogenated methane derivatives are considered: P: \(\mathrm{CBrClFI}\). Q: \(\mathrm{CCl_2F_2}\). R: \(\mathrm{CH_2BrCl}\). Assume ordinary tetrahedral geometry at carbon, with no isotope-induced distinction between otherwise identical substituents. Which statement correctly compares chirality and molecular polarity?
ⓐ. P and Q are both chiral because each contains four carbon–halogen bonds, whereas R is achiral and necessarily nonpolar
ⓑ. P is achiral because it has no carbon–hydrogen bond, while Q and R are both chiral
ⓒ. P is chiral; Q and R are achiral but can each possess a nonzero molecular dipole
ⓓ. All three are chiral because every carbon–halogen bond is polar
507. A refrigerator and an aerosol container historically used the same chlorofluorocarbon refrigerant, Freon-12. A manufacturer presents the following reasoning: Assertion (A): The chemical stability that made Freon-12 useful in refrigerant and aerosol applications also contributes to its potential for long-range atmospheric transport. Reason (R): Freon-12 is readily liquefiable under suitable conditions, and this physical property means that its carbon–chlorine bonds must undergo rapid chemical cleavage in the lower atmosphere. Choose the correct option.
ⓐ. Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A
ⓑ. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
ⓒ. A is false, but R is true
ⓓ. A is true, but R is false
508. An old industrial cleaning-fluid sample is suspected to be either chloroform, \(\mathrm{CHCl_3}\), or tetrachloromethane, \(\mathrm{CCl_4}\). An elemental analysis shows that a \(15.4\ \mathrm{g}\) sample contains \(14.2\ \mathrm{g}\) chlorine. Use atomic masses: \[ \mathrm{C}=12.0,\quad\mathrm{H}=1.0,\quad\mathrm{Cl}=35.5 \] Assume the sample is a pure compound and that the analysis is exact to the reported precision. Which conclusion is most appropriate?
ⓐ. The sample is chloroform because its chlorine mass fraction is about \(92.2\%\); its principal storage concern is conversion into iodoform
ⓑ. The sample is tetrachloromethane because its chlorine mass fraction is about \(92.2\%\); historical cleaning use does not eliminate its toxicity or atmospheric ozone-depletion concerns
ⓒ. The sample is chloroform because its chlorine mass fraction is about \(89.1\%\); its lack of a molecular dipole makes it environmentally persistent
ⓓ. The sample is tetrachloromethane because its chlorine mass fraction is about \(89.1\%\); the absence of hydrogen makes it incapable of atmospheric photochemical transformation
509. Bromoethane is converted into ethylmagnesium bromide using magnesium in dry ether. The starting bromoethane and the resulting organomagnesium reagent are then compared through two separate reactions: P: Bromoethane is treated with aqueous hydroxide. Q: Ethylmagnesium bromide is treated with carbon dioxide, followed by acidic hydrolysis. Consider the following statements. Statement I: In bromoethane, carbon bears a partial positive charge relative to bromine and can be attacked by a suitable nucleophile. Statement II: In ethylmagnesium bromide, the carbon bonded to magnesium has carbanion-like character and can attack an electrophilic carbon. Statement III: The carbon directly involved in the transformation changes from an electrophilic centre in P to a nucleophilic centre in Q because the bonding partner changes. Statement IV: Both reactions produce propanoic acid because they begin with the same two-carbon organic fragment. Which combination is correct?
ⓐ. I, II and IV only
ⓑ. II, III and IV only
ⓒ. I and III only
ⓓ. I, II and III only
510. 2-Bromo-2,3-dimethylbutane, \(\mathrm{CH_3C(Br)(CH_3)CH(CH_3)CH_3}\), undergoes E2 elimination under two separately controlled conditions. P: A relatively small, strong base is used under conditions favouring formation of the more substituted alkene. Q: A sterically bulky, strong base is used under conditions favouring abstraction of the more accessible beta-hydrogen. Assume that the stipulated regioselectivity is achieved and no rearrangement occurs. Which statement correctly identifies the principal alkene products and their stereochemical possibilities?
ⓐ. P gives 2,3-dimethylbut-2-ene, while Q gives 2,3-dimethylbut-1-ene; neither principal product exhibits E/Z isomerism
ⓑ. P gives 2,3-dimethylbut-1-ene, while Q gives 2,3-dimethylbut-2-ene; both principal products exhibit E/Z isomerism
ⓒ. Both conditions give exclusively 2,3-dimethylbut-2-ene because a bulky base cannot remove a beta-hydrogen
ⓓ. P gives 2,3-dimethylbut-2-ene, while Q gives 2,3-dimethylbut-1-ene; both principal products exist as E/Z pairs
Subscribe
Notify of
guest
0 Comments
Scroll to Top